IGNOU PGCPM

MPM 004 - Project Closeout (PGCPM Questions and Answers - 3)

2010-12-20T18:58:00.001-08:00

41. What is not the part of purchase order close out?

A Operating instructions

B Compliance with delivery terms

C Preparing project management plan

D Vendor’s Claims

42. Which is not the part of core element of contract?

A Payment terms

B Company leave policy

C Statement of work

D None of the above

43. Which agreement is signed to keep the information secret between client and contractor?

A Letter of authorization

B Subcontractor agreement

C Contract

D Non-disclosure agreement

44. When is the project close out reports prepared?

A Planning stage

B Implementation life cycle

C End of the project

D Execution stage

45. Which documents are ensured to be closed in project close out?

A Risk management log

B Project change log

C A & B

D None of the above

46. Which resources are included in resource close out?

A Man

B Material

C Equipment

D All of the above

47. What is not true for team close out?

A The team resources are returned after the completion of project

B It is not a good practice to conduct close out meeting even if the project is terminated early.

C Meeting for close out or celebration to be conducted

D The project manager ensures that the stakeholders should be made aware of any remaining work

48. Which aspect is included during lessons learnt from projects?

A Positive

B Negative

C Both

D None of the above

49. What is necessary to accept a project?

A Project Plan

B Meeting acceptance criteria

C Executing a project

D Resource allocation

50. When is the project acceptance done?

A Project had satisfied requirement with some minor errors/omissions

B Project had not satisfied the acceptance

C Project had satisfied the acceptance

D At the implementation stage

51. When the project is considered successful?

A When deliverables are by & large handed over to a client

B When all the deliverables as per checklist are delivered

C When project team members are dispersed

D When the total payment is received by the contractor

52. What are the methods of project evaluation?

A Project Audits

B Quality Control

C Post Implementation Reviews

D A & C

53. Which of the following is considered for post project evaluation review?

A Overall cost of the project

B The improvements done in the project in communication techniques, project mission, risk management and planning.

C Analysis of lessons learnt to benefit future projects

D All of the above

54. When is the project health check done?

A Regular interval throughout the project

B Start of the project

C A & B

D None of the above

55. What is true of project audit?

A It assesses the performance of the project

B It ensures that right team skills are available

C It detects the irregularities as early as possible to prevent damage at the later stages of project

D None of the above

56. Which is not the step for post project evaluation?

A Conducting post project evaluation review meeting

B Preparation for post project evaluation review meeting

C Conducting kick off meeting

D None of the above

MPM 004 - Project Closeout (PGCPM Questions and Answers - 2)

2010-12-20T18:55:00.001-08:00

21. Assemble product components is an

A Infinity process

B Incremental process

C Identical process

D Undefined process

22. Before assembling any product component one should ensure:

A Readiness of product integration environment

B Each component should be confirmed to be compliant with its interface requirement.

C Integration sequence is properly defined and reviewed.

D All of the above

23. Product evaluation can be done at two levels:

A Planning and organizing

B Verification and validation

C Quality control and quality assurance

D Sequencing and assembling

24. Verification of product can be done by

A Structured walkthroughs.

B Demonstration of functionality

C Planned inspection meetings.

D A & C

25. Document management does not include:

A Document development

B Document control

C Document review

D Document approval

26. Project initial document is not:

A Project quality plan

B Project management plan

C Project charter

D Project scope statement

27. Priority Setting techniques are:

A Compromise and consensus

B Top down and rolling wave

C Dot Voting and Weighted voting

D Probability and Impact

28. Most appropriate technique use for group priority setting is

A Dot Voting

B Weighted Voting

C Consensus Decision

D Multi Voting

29. Parato analysis helps to identify

A About 20% of the most critical issue

B About 80% of the most critical issue

C About 100% of the issue status

D About 20% of the issue status.

30. Issue Histogram helps to

A Review all pending issues

B Give overall status of the project issues

C Identify the most critical issue in the project

D All of the above

31. In carrying out effective contract administration, it is necessary to:

A Document all change requests

B Have a good contract change control system

C Have buyers and sellers develop a good personal relationship

D A and B

32. The amount of monitoring of contractor's work by the project manager will vary based on:

A The value of the contract

B The type of contract being used

C The reputation of the contractor

D The nature of the work being done

33. What is NOT true?

A Both the buyer's and seller's project manager's should be aware of the contract's legal implications

B Seller must meet all contractual obligations

C Contractor must complete work receiving any payment

D Project manager is responsible to ensure seller is meeting all requirements

34. Who issues the warranty?

A Manufacturer

B Customer

C Retailer

D A & C

35. When is the warranty rights enforced against suppliers?

A When warranty is not violated

B When warranty is violated

C During pre-delivery of goods and services

D Suppliers do not meet the commitment in delivery

36. In contract close out, one should:

A Measure the performance of a contracting organization based on specifications and the technical aspects

B Measure how well did the contractor behaved

C Measure the personal relationship with the contractor

D Measure customer satisfaction

37. During contract closeout a Product verification is done to:

A Ensure that the seller's work is complete and satisfactorily meets all the contract requirements

B Verify the product's design

C To document the seller's work

D Verify the work completed for making seller payments

38. Contract Closeout involves all of the following except:

A Relocating the team members

B Formal acceptance of the work by the buyer

C Updating the contract file

D Product verification

39. Contract closure should be done:

A If there is enough time

B If a contract is terminated before completion

C At the end of the contract

D B and C

40. Who issues the purchase order?

A Buyer

B Seller

C Project Manager

D None of the above

MPM 004 - Project Closeout

2010-12-20T18:53:00.001-08:00

1. Providing required quality in the project can be defined as:

A Conformance to requirements

B Gold plating

C Achieving Six sigma

D Having Zero defects

2. Which is the right sequence amongst the following:

A Progress, problem solving, information and decision-making

B Information, decision-making, problem solving, progress

C Information, problem solving, decision-making, progress

D Information, problem solving, progress, decision-making

3. Initial project definition is required to establish

A Project documentation management system.

B A common understanding among all stakeholders.

C A basic foundation for project integration.

D B & C

4. ________gives a summary level project definition

A Project charter

B Scope management plan

C Cost management plan

D All of the above

5. Project definition does not include:

A Business need

B Project purpose and description

C A summary milestone and budget

D Network diagram.

6. A high level summary definition of project ensures:

A Understanding of roles and responsibilities amongst various functional units in achieving project’s requirements.

B A common understanding of project purpose, requirements, business needs, risk and assumption/constraints.

C Conflicts arising due to interaction among various functional units will be maximized.

D A & B

7. Development of project management plan is:

A An iterative process

B Progressive elaboration process

C A rolling wave technique

D All of the above

8. Managing plan includes

A Development of products, services and results.

B Development of network diagram for the project.

C Integrating approved changes across the entire project.

D Hiring human resources for the project.

9. Core functions for the project management integration are

A Communication and procurement

B Scope and quality

C Risk and human resource

D All of the above

10. Facilitating functions for the project management integration are

A Communication and procurement

B Scope and quality

C Cost and time

D All above

11. Corrective action is a documented procedure for executing the project work in order to

A Prevent and eliminates occurrence of negative consequences associated with project risk.

B Repair and correct defects identified in the project.

C Prevent recurrence and eliminates the cause of nonconformities.

D Identify the new risks in the project.

12. Preventive action is a documented procedure for executing the project work in order to

A Prevent recurrence and eliminates the cause of nonconformities.

B Repair and correct defects identified in the project.

C Prevent and eliminates occurrence of negative consequences associated with project risk.

D Identify new risks in the project.

13. Outcomes of a successful management of project execution are:

A A verified product, services and result which was expected as a delivery from the project.

B Implementation of corrective actions, preventive actions and defect repair identified during the project execution.

C Updated project documents for lesson learn and improvement activity.

D All of the above.

14. Monitoring includes:

A Developing the monitoring document.

B Measurement of project performance data

C Accepting the changes

D Implementing the changes

15. Control is all about

A Controlling deviation

B Recommending corrective and preventive actions

C Controlling changes

D All above

16. Monitoring and control ensures:

A Project management plan is approved

B Documentation management is in place

C Project is carried out as per schedule and in estimated budget and resources as planned.

D None of the above

17. Requirements for equipment, software and other resources for integration platform are gathered during:

A Organization phase

B Implementation phase

C Planning phase

D Planning phase

18. The most critical aspects of product integration is

A Acquiring resources for integration testing.

B Managing product component interfaces and ensuring compatibility among them.

C Managing budget during product component development.

D None of the above

19. Sequencing of components integration cannot be decided on the basis of:

A Functionality of the components.

B Customer’s need or priority

C Components dependencies

D Project cost estimation

20. Project cost estimation

A Designing the product components.

B Avoiding any overlap or conflict in product component integration.

C Developing a complex product component.

D Acquiring an integration platform.

PMP Questions - 9

2010-06-04T04:33:00.001-07:00

161. Financial compensation is the primary motivational tool for which of the following management theories of programs.

A. Zero-defects program.

B. theory X management.

C. theory Y management.

D. Quality control circles.

E. A and C

ANS: B

162. In which of the following contract types is it easier to change the scope of the contract:

A. firm fixed price

B. fixed price plus incentive fee

C. cost plus percentage of cost

D. letter contract

E. None of the above.

ANS: C

163. Planning activities such that predetermined resource availability pools are not exceeded is called:

A. Resource leveling.

B. Manpower leveling.

C. Resource limited planning.

D. Manpower planning.

E. Manpower contingency planning.

ANS: C

164. The project charter:

A. Expresses upper management commitment to the project.

B. Provides that authority by which the project will be run.

C. Establishes that organizational structure with the project.

D. Specifies overall objectives and timeframe of the project.

E. All of the above.

ANS: E

165. Which of the following areas are addressed in risk identification:

A. environmental

B. technical

C. legal

D. All of the above.

E. A and B only

ANS: D

166. Which of the following types of power comes through the organizational hierarchy

A. Coercive

B. Reward

C. Referent

D. Legitimate

E. Expert

ANS: D

167. A calendar that identifies when a project may be performed on an activity is called a:

A. Project calendar.

B. Resource calendar.

C. Milestone point.

D. Key point.

E. Work unit.

ANS: A

168. Charisma would be an example of _____ power.

A. Legitimate

B. Reward

C. Coercive

D. Expert

E. Referent

ANS: E

169. For every situation, several methods usually exist for effective communication to take place. Which of the following is least likely to be used

for explaining to the team project planning guidelines?

A. project office memo

B. project office directive

C. project team meeting

D. formal report

E. counseling sessions

ANS: D

170. In the project environment, the individual ultimately responsible for quality control is:

A. The line workers who must strive "to do things right the first time" to avoid quality problems.

B. the company's quality control manager who must work with the project members to ensure the quality control program is effective.

C. The head of the production department who retains ultimate quality control responsibility for all the company's projects.

D. The project manager who has ultimate responsibility for the entire project.

E. the customer who must ensure that he is receiving a quality product from the vendor.

ANS: D

171. In which of the following types of contracts is it most important for the contractor to maintain control of cost, schedule and scope changes.

A. unit price

B. cost plus incentive fee

C. cost plus fixed fee

D. firm fixed price

E. B and D only

ANS: D

172. Middle (functional) managers have the greatest influence in the direction of the project in which type of organizational structure?

A. Project.

B. Strong matrix.

C. Weak matrix.

D. Project coordinator.

E. Project expeditor.

ANS: C

173. Which of the following risks are generally considered unpredictable:

A. business risk

B. financial risk

C. inflation

D. natural hazards

E. taxes

ANS: C

174. A clear definition of the user's needs serves as the direct basis for the:

A. Work breakdown structure.

B. Functional requirements.

C. Project cost estimate.

D. Selection of personnel.

E. Termination decision.

ANS: B

175. R & D project managers in high-tech companies most often motivate using _____ power.

A. Expert

B. Reward

C. Referent

D. Identification

E. None of the above

ANS: A

176. The major difference between PERT and CPM networks is:

A. PERT requires three time estimates whereas CPM requires one time estimate.

B. PERT is used for construction projects whereas CPM is used for R & D.

C. PERT addresses only time whereas CPM also includes cost and resource availability.

D. PERT requires computer solutions whereas CPM is a manual technique.

E. PERT is measured in days whereas CPM uses weeks or months.

ANS: A

177. The majority of product defects could be prevented in most processes if manufactures would do the following:

A. Increase the use of acceptance control charts instead of standard three-sigma control charts.

B. Make a concerted effort to eliminate the potential for product defects in the design stage.

C. Create a quality control department.

D. A and B.

E. A and C

ANS: B

178. Which of the following diagrams is most useful in impact analysis:

A. arrow diagrams

B. precedence diagrams

C. decision trees

D. Pareto diagrams

E. cause and effects diagrams

ANS: C

179. Which of the following is least likely to be used in explaining to a team member why you consider his/her performance substandard?

A. Project office memo

B. counseling session

C. project team meeting

D. formal letter

E. individual conversation

ANS: C

180. Which of the following types of contracts allows the owner to transfer risk to the contractor:

A. cost plus incentive fee

B. cost sharing

C. firm fixed price

D. cost plus fixed fee

E. performance guarantees

ANS: C

PMP Questions - 8

2010-06-03T08:41:00.000-07:00

141. Overlapping activities on a project, such as design and construction, is referred to as:

A. Fast tracking

B. Risk conversion.

C. Parallel management.

D. Process improvement.

E. Synchronous manufacturing

ANS: A

142. The major reason why a project manager would use written instead of oral communication is:

A. documentation

B. feedback

C. cost

D. barrier elimination

E. All of the above.

ANS: A

143. The scope management provides:

A. A basis for future decisions about the project.

B. A baseline to accomplish verification measures.

C. A baseline to evaluate potential scope changes.

D. All of the above.

E. B and C only.

ANS: D

144. Total project risk can be defined as:

A. the sum of the probabilities of project risks events times the sum of consequences of those risks

B. the sum of the products of each project risk event times its consequences

C. the sum of the consequences of all project risk events

D. the sum of the probabilities of all project risk events

E. 1 - the sum of the probabilities of all project risk events.

ANS: B

145. Which of the following statements about the cost of quality are true?

A. the cost of quality is the expense of nonconformance to requirements and specifications.

B. the cost of quality are mostly the direct responsibility of workers who are manufacturing the product.

C. quality control programs should be implemented when the cost of quality are deemed affordable by management.

D. A and B.

E. A and C

ANS: A

146. A line manager who is asked to wear two hats and function as a project manager at the same time is likely to exercise:

A. Authority

B. Power

C. Influence

D. All of the above]

E. A and B only

ANS: D

147. Including the customer in the process of project planning is:

A. Slow and counterproductive.

B. Essential in the definition and documentation of project goals.

C. Necessary, but of limited value.

D. Unnecessary because project goals are defined in the proposal stage.

E. None of the above.

ANS: B

148. It is argumentative whether project managers actually control costs. Which of the following is the most common element over which the

project manager may have some degree of control?

A. Direct labor dollars

B. Direct labor hours.

C. Overhead rates.

D. Procurement costs.

E. None of the above.

ANS: B

149. Most quality problems:

A. originate in the quality department where the ultimate responsibility for quality rests.

B. originate on the shop floor because of waste and product rework.

C. are the results of management inattention to potential quality improvement ideas.

D. could be eliminated if shop supervisors monitored their work more closely.

E. A and B

ANS: C

150. The "buy or make" decision is usually made during the:

A. acquisition cycle

B. contract evaluation cycle

C. requirements cycle

D. pre-award cycle

E. at any time that is convenient for the project manager

ANS: C

151. The logical relationship that communicates a delay between the start/finish of one activity and the start/finish of another activity is referred to

as:

A. Slack

B. Free float.

C. Restricted float.

D. Level float.

E. Lag

ANS: E

152. Which of the following actions is an example of risk response:

A. adjust project parameters (scope, time, quality ...)

B. reduce the probability of potential project risk events

C. reduce the consequences of potential project risk events

D. wait until a problem actually happens, then deal with it in the most effective and efficient manner.

E. A, B and C only

ANS: E

153. A comparison of completion status to baseline is referred to as _____.

A. Earned value measurement.

B. Percent complete.

C. ACWP.

D. BCWS

E. None of above.

ANS: A

154. An example of coercive power would be:

A. Demotion

B. Reduction in wages

C. Disciplinary layoff

D. Reprimand

E. All of the above

ANS: E

155. Job descriptions are examples of ______communications.

A. upward

B. downward

C. horizontal

D. diagonal

E. None of the above

ANS: E

156. Monte Carlo simulation:

A. Was originally developed by Dr. Carlo

B. Is a European technique for assessing project risks

C. assumes the future risk events will occur at random according to predetermined probability distributions

D. is a technique to stimulate create risk event resolution

E. A, B and C only

ANS: C

157. The Pareto Principle is a technique used to determine which quality control problems in a particular process should be corrected. Which of

the following statements best represents the philosophy employed by this principle?

A. In order to minimize financial losses from quality control problems, all problems which have a measureable cost should be corrected

B. the majority of defects are caused by a small percentage of the identifiable problems. Improvement efforts should be reserved for these vital

problems.

C. in order to achieve zero defects, all quality control problems, including those which do not have a direct financial cost should be corrected.

D. generally, 80% of the quality control problems are justifiable for correction via cost-benefit analysis. The remaining 20% are not financially

worthy of improvement efforts.

E. A and D

ANS: B

158. The WBS is:

A. An organization oriented family tree of the project.

B. A task oriented family tree of the project.

C. A cost centered structure of the project.

D. Only required on large complex projects where separately identifiable work packages are difficult to construct.

E. None of the above.

ANS: B

159. Which of the following processes allow an unsuccessful bidder to seek remedy for contract award to another bidder.

A. bid protest

B. bid review

C. award Protest

D. award review

E. any of the above processes can be used

ANS: A

160. A project team member submits a suggestion on how to improve the corporate procurement process. This is an example of _____

communication

A. upward

B. downward

C. horizontal

D. diagonal

E. None of the above.

ANS: A

PMP Questions - 7

2010-06-02T23:06:00.001-07:00

121. Which of the following is associated with a buyer's request for material to meet a particular need:

A. material warranty

B. material guarantees

C. implied warranty of salability

D. implied warranty of fitness for a particular purpose

E. A and C only

ANS: D

122. A project manager trying to communicate accurately to the team should use:

A. the language of the team members

B. the language of the project manager

C. non-verbal methods

D. written memos

E. All of the above.

ANS: A

123. An advertiser who uses a movie or sports star to endorse a product is trying to use power.

A. Expert

B. Legitimate

C. Reward

D. Influential

E. Referent

ANS: E

124. Control chart theory is based on the differentiation of the causes of variations in quality. Variations may be produced by assignable causes.

All of the following are examples of assignable causes except:

A. differences among machines.

B. differences among workers.

C. differences among materials.

D. differences in each of these factors over time.

E. None of the above (all are examples)

ANS: E

125. Giving a part of project work to a contractor is an example of:

A. risk mitigation

B. risk assignment

C. risk delegation

D. risk deflection

E. risk assumption

ANS: D

126. Proper implementation of project management will guarantee that:

A. Budgets will be met.

B. Schedules will be adhered to.

C. Quality/performance will be met.

D. The project will be a success.

E. None of the above.

ANS: E

127. The most effective means of determining the cost of a project is to price out the _____.

A. Work breakdown structure.

B. Linear responsibility chart.

C. Project charter.

D. Scope statement.

E. Management plan.

ANS: A

128. Which method shown below is acceptable for reducing cost or shortening the schedule?

A. "Crashing"

B. Changing scope.

C. Performing activities in parallel rather than in series.

D. All of the above.

E. A and C only.

ANS: D

129. Which of the following terms is used to describe the receipt issued by a carrier for items to be delivered to a third party:

A. free on board

B. receipt for merchandise

C. packaging list

D. loading list

E. bill of lading

ANS: E

130. A computer tape which contains historical project information is called ____ tape.

A. Database

B. Baseline.

C. Archive.

D. Lessons learned.

E. Life cycle summary.

ANS: C

131. According to Herzberg, which of the following is a motivational factor?

A. Pay

B. Hygiene needs

C. Achievement

D. Working conditions

E. Vacation time

ANS: C

132. Communication in both project and non-project-driven organizations should occur in directions.

A. one

B. two

C. three

D. four

E. five

ANS: E

133. During project execution, a line manager informs you that he will not have sufficient resources available next month to support your and two

other projects. The best way to handle this problem would be to:

A. Ask the line manager to make the decision.

B. Ask the line manager to work with senior management to prioritize the work.

C. Ask your sponsor to meet with the line manager.

D. Ask the line manager to set up a meeting with you and the other project managers to work out the problem yourselves.

E. Prepare a purchase order to outsource the work.

ANS: D

134. Japanese quality control has improved dramatically in the last 30 years for all of the following reasons except:

A. the use of quality circles.

B. small, continuous improvements in quality control.

C. the use of worker suggestion systems.

D. the use of quality control charts.

E. focusing quality control efforts on production outputs.

ANS: E

135. Management reserves are normally defined as a % of the total budget. As a project progresses, the project manager wants the $ value of

management reserve to _____, whereas the customer wants the management reserve to _____.

A. Increase, increase.

B. Increase, decrease.

C. Decrease, decrease.

D. Decrease, increase.

E. Remain the same, return to customer.

ANS: E

136. The utility of a risk seeker is:

A. negatively exponential

B. positively skewed

C. increasing

D. decreasing

E. symmetrical

ANS: C

137. Which of the following is equivalent to a lump sum contract:

A. fixed price contract

B. price fixing contract

C. purchase order

D. All of the above.

E. B and C only

ANS: A

138. Back charges refers to:

A. transferring charges from sub-contractors to the owner

B. adjusting payments to reflect late invoices consequence

C. the cost of corrective action taken by the owner and charged to the contractor for non-conformance

D. gaining restitution from the owner for non payment

E. C and D only

ANS: C

139. Company expenses such as auditing costs, supervision, office supplies, building rent and maintenance are elements of the:

A. Capital budgeting process.

B. Overhead rates.

C. Contracts and administration costing system.

D. Fringe benefits packages.

E. None of the above.

ANS: B

140. Job continuity would be an example of _____ in Maslow's hierarchy of needs.

A. Self-actualization

B. Esteem

C. Physiological

D. Belonging

E. Safety

ANS: E

PMP Questions - 6

2010-06-02T03:14:00.001-07:00

101. Smoothing out resource requirements from period to period is called resource _____.

A. Allocation.

B. Partitioning

C. Leveling.

D. Quantification

E. None of above.

ANS: C

102. The most precise or accurate estimate for determining project costs is the _____ estimate.

A. Definitive.

B. Analogy

C. Budget

D. Modified standards.

E. Rule of thumb.

ANS: A

103. When subordinates know pertinent information that is not known by the project manager, the result is:

A. Blindspot

B. Facade

C. region of influence

D. Communication power base

E. None of the above

ANS: A

104. Which of the following scheduling methods uses more of the risk management concepts:

A. ADM

B. PDM

C. CPM

D. PERT

E. Gantt

ANS: D

105. Which of the following terms refers to the situation where the work is being used for the purpose intended and so certified:

A. beneficial completion

B. substantial completion

C. project completion

D. contract closeout

E. final completion

ANS: B

106. A _____ estimate prepared from layouts, sketches and flowsheets, should be accurate within (-10, +25%).

A. Parametric

B. Definitive.

C. Budget

D. Bottom up.

E. Top down.

ANS: C

107. Assigning resources in an attempt to find the shortest project schedule consistent with fixed resource limits is called resource _____.

A. Allocation.

B. Partitioning

C. Leveling

D. Quantification.

E. None of above.

ANS: A

108. For communication to occur, there must be:

A. Two or more people involved

B. the transmittal of information

C. a communication process

D. All of the above

E. B and C only

ANS: D

109. The ability to get an individual or group to perform a given task is best described as:

A. Authority

B. Power

C. Influence

D. Leadership

E. Coerciveness

ANS: B

110. The comprehensive review of a contractor's technical performance, cost performance, and delivery schedule, is referred to as:

A. post project evaluation

B. post contract evaluation

C. post mortem

D. procurement performance evaluation

E. contractor's performance evaluation

ANS: E

111. The financial closeout of a project dictates that:

A. All project funds have been spent.

B. No charge numbers have been overrun.

C. No follow-on work from this client is possible.

D. No further charges can be made against the project.

E. All of the above.

ANS: D

112. Two sources of variation in the length of hex bolts exist. Production variation and measurement error. The QC manager knows that the

standard deviation from these sources is 0.24" and 0.43" , respectively. What is the total standard deviation.

A. .10 inch.

B. .19 inch.

C. .34 inch.

D. .49 inch.

E. .67 inch.

ANS: D

113. Which of the following activities can be considered as part of risk mitigation

A. risk identification

B. purchasing insurance

C. assessment of outcomes

D. assessment of probabilities

E. C and D only

ANS: B

114. In general, attempts to smooth out period to period resources will _____ the scheduled time and _____ project costs.

A. Increase, decrease.

B. Increase, increase

C. Increase, increase or decrease.

D. Decrease, decrease.

E. Decrease, increase.

ANS: B

115. Risk management methodology should be adhered to in:

A. construction projects

B. system projects

C. complex projects

D. large projects

E. All of the above.

ANS: E

116. The most common form of written project communication is

A. Publications

B. Bulletin boards

C. Reports

D. Letters and memos

E. All of the above

ANS: D

117. The most difficult decision for the executive sponsors to make at the end-of-phase review meeting is:

A. Budget allocations for the next phase.

B. Authorizing scope changes for the next phase.

C. Authorizing budget increases for the next phase based upon scope changes.

D. Canceling the project.

E. All of the above.

ANS: D

118. The most expensive phase of life cycle costing is:

A. R & D.

B. Applied research.

C. Production

D. Operations and support.

E. Termination.

ANS: D

119. The rule of seven used by quality control engineers states that if a run of seven or more samples lays on one side of the process mean, then

the process is out of control. What is the probability that this condition is the result of random variations.

A. 0.143

B. 0.0312

C. 0.0273

D. 0.0156

E. 0.0078

ANS: D

120. The term that best describes the 'right' to manipulate or change others is called?

A. Authority

B. Power

C. Leadership

D. Coerciveness

E. Project charter

ANS: A

PMP Questions - 5

2010-06-02T03:08:00.001-07:00

81. There are two major types of reserves used on projects. The _____ is for (usually major) scope changes that were not considered as part of

the original plan, whereas the _____ is to compensate for minor changes in estimating, escalation factors.

A. Management reserve, unplanned allowance fund.

B. Management reserve, contingency.

C. Contingency fund, management reserve.

D. Unplanned allowance fund, budgetary reserve.

E. Unplanned reserve, planned reserve.

ANS: C

82. To determine what causes the majority of quality problems in a process, a very useful tool is the:

A. cause and effect diagrams.

B. flow chart.

C. control chart.

D. pareto chart.

E. trend chart.

ANS: D

83. Which of the following is not part of contract administration

A. contract award

B. performance control

C. financial control

D. contract closeout

E. All of the above are parts of contract administration.

ANS: A

84. A(n) _____ system is designed to ensure the timely availability of nonhuman resources, and includes the cost in procurement, shipping/freight,

storage and loss.

A. Inventory control.

B. Materials management.

C. Procurement.

D. All of the above.

E. A and C only.

ANS: B

85. Expectancy theory as applied to project management implies that:

A. The team will work the hardest on those goals that are clearly explained by the project manager

B. The more rewards that the project manager provides, the better the performance of the team

C. Team members will work hardest for those project goals that also bring satisfaction to personal goals

D. Employees will work hardest for those project goals which are accompanied by high levels of authority for the individual team members

E. None of the above

ANS: C

86. Non-verbal communication includes:

A. Body movement

B. Gestures

C. Facial expressions

D. The way we move our hands

E. All of the above

ANS: E

87. The formal invitation to submit a price for specified goods/services is usually referred to as:

A. request for proposal

B. request for quotation

C. tender invitation

D. bid invitation

E. A and B only

ANS: B

88. The project scope/charter baseline includes:

A. Summary of background conditions defining the project.

B. Organization, authority and responsibility relationships.

C. Functions to be performed.

D. Resource requirement schedule including time estimates.

E. All of the above.

ANS: E

89. Which of the following is not an input to quality planning?

A. scope statement.

B. regulations.

C. work results.

D. standards.

E. quality policy.

ANS: C

90. Which of the following networking methods allows us to show that the last 10% of one element cannot be completed until 62% of a previous

element has been completed?

A. PERT

B. ADM

C. PDM

D. All of the above.

E. A and C only.

ANS: C

91. Which of the following utility functions reflects risk-aversion:

A. uniform

B. increasing

C. decreasing

D. exponential

E. B and D only

ANS: C

92. A deficiency in characteristics that render the quality of the material/service unacceptable is usually referred to as:

A. defective

B. defect

C. non-conformance

D. poor workmanship

E. lack of fitness for use

ANS: C

93. A line manager possesses information which the project team needs, but withholds the information. The results in a(n):

A. Blindspot

B. Facade

C. region of influence

D. Communication power base

E. None of the above

ANS: B

94. A project can best be defined as:

A. Series of non-related activities designed to accomplish single and multiple objectives.

B. Coordinated effort of related activities designed to accomplish a goal without a well-established end point.

C. Cradle-to-grave activities which must be accomplished in less than one year and consumes human and non-human resources.

D. Any undertaking with a definable time frame, well-defined objectives, and consumes both human and non-human resources with certain

constraints.

E. All of the above.

ANS: D

95. Guidelines for estimating time durations include:

A. Assuming a normal level of labor and equipment.

B. Assuming a normal work week.

C. Using consistent time units

D. Using past actual durations as guides.

E. All or part of each of the above.

ANS: E

96. Herzberg identified factors which, if present, will lead to increased motivation. A typical factor would be:

A. Good supervision

B. Job security

C. Regular promotions

D. Good salary

E. A dental plan

ANS: C

97. Statistical cost estimating techniques (based upon history), are called _____ estimates and are a _____ approach.

A. Definitive, bottom up.

B. Analogy, top down.

C. Parametric, bottom up.

D. Parametric, top down.

E. Analogy, bottom up.

ANS: D

98. Which quality management tool would be used to determine potential causes of a production problem?

A. control chart.

B. Ishikawa diagram.

C. scatter diagram.

D. histogram.

E. run chart.

ANS: B

99. Affinity diagrams are used to:

A. determine if a process is in control.

B. determine root cause.

C. show the relationship among variables.

D. categorize large amounts of data.

E. None of the above.

ANS: D

100. One of your project team members has made a technological breakthrough on an R & D project. The result will be new business for the

company, as well as a company patent. The team member received a company bonus. The motivational strategy used here is:

A. Job enrichment

B. Linking pay and performance

C. Behavior modification

D. Freedom in the work place

E. All of the above

ANS: B

PMP Questions - 4

2010-06-02T03:04:00.000-07:00

61. Which of the following is an element of procurement management:

A. inspection

B. purchasing

C. estimating

D. expediting

E. A, B and D only

ANS: E

62. Which of the following is most closely associated with pure risk:

A. profit and loss

B. personnel turnover

C. insurance

D. market fluctuations

E. A and D only

ANS: C

63. Assignable cause or special variation is:

A. is indicated when a point falls outside the control limits.

B. is indicated when a point falls outside the specification limits.

C. is indicated when a run of seven or more points fall above the center line of a standard control chart.

D. is indicated when a run of seven or more points fall below the center line of a standard control chart.

E. A, C, and D.

ANS: E

64. In the arrow diagramming method (ADM), _____ do not consume time or resources.

A. Events.

B. Activities

C. Slack elements.

D. B and C only.

E. All of the above.

ANS: A

65. Management reserve is generally intended to be used to:

A. implement additional unbudgeted scope

B. compensate for inaccurate estimates

C. cover major unforeseen catastrophes

D. cover unforeseen problems in the project

E. All of the above.

ANS: D

66. Project management has been proven to be successful because employees get to see the entire effort, from beginning to end, rather than just

small pieces. This could be considered an example of:

A. Behavioral modification

B. Linking performance to pay

C. Positive job reinforcement

D. Job enrichment

E. All of the above

ANS: D

67. Project managers that are available to answer questions, provide guidance when need, and generally do not interfere with day-to-day activities

have a(n) ______ managerial style.

A. Autocratic

B. Conciliatory

C. Ethical

D. Facilitative

E. Judicial

ANS: D

68. The scope baseline once established and approved, is used:

A. as the basis for making future decisions.

B. to accomplish verification measures.

C. to evaluate potential changes.

D. All of the above.

E. A and C only.

ANS: D

69. The three most common types of project cost estimates are:

A. Order of magnitude, parametric, and budget.

B. Parametric, definitive and top down.

C. Order of magnitude, definitive and bottom up.

D. Order of magnitude, budget and definitive.

E. Analogy, parametric and top down.

ANS: D

70. To calculate the expected value of an outcome:

A. divide the value of each outcome by its probability, then add the results.

B. divide the value of the desired outcome by the value all possible outcomes

C. multiply the value of each outcome by its probability, then add the results

D. use linear regression to assess the expected value of the outcome

E. B and D only

ANS: C

71. Activities with zero time duration are referred to as:

A. Critical path activites.

B. Noncritical path activities.

C. Slack time activities.

D. Dummies

E. None of above.

ANS: D

72. For a given characteristic in a construction process, the standard deviation associated with production variation is 0.8", and the standard

deviation associated with measurement variation is 0.6". The total standard deviation for this characteristic is:

A. 1.4"

B. 1.2".

C. 1.0"

D. 0.8"

E. 0.2"

ANS: C

73. Project cash reserves are often used for adjustment in escalation factors which may be beyond the control of the project manager. Other than

possibly financing (interest) costs and taxes, the three most common escalation factors involve changes in:

A. Overhead rates, labor rates and material costs.

B. Overhead rates, schedule slippages, and rework.

C. Rework, cost-of-living adjustments, and overtime.

D. Material costs, shipping cost, and scope changes.

E. Labor rates, material costs, and cost reporting.

ANS: A

74. Selective perception is _____ of new conflicting information that may result, in a breakdown in communication.

A. Encoding

B. Blocking out

C. Transmission

D. Acceptance

E. Decoding

ANS: B

75. The work breakdown structure (WBS) is an excellent tool for objective control and evaluation. Which of the following is generally NOT

validated through the WBS?

A. Time, schedule and cost.

B. Management coordination and organization structuring.

C. Work methods and accountability.

D. Quality of work.

E. Risk and impact decision-making.

ANS: D

76. When working in an environment that uses learning curves, the most effective plan for creating the perception that pay is related to

performance is to provide the team members with an individual salary plus bonus based upon

A. Individual productivity

B. Cost effectiveness

C. Group or team productivity

D. Rating system developed by the project manager

E. All of the above

ANS: A

77. Which of the following is not part of the acquisition process:

A. source selection

B. invitation to bid

C. contract award

D. notice to proceed

E. All of the above are parts of the acquisition process.

ANS: D

78. An individual who is working on the satisfaction of physiological needs has essentially satisfied which needs?

A. Safety

B. Empowerment/authority

C. Esteem

D. Self-actualization

E. None of the above

ANS: E

79. In the PDM, common constraints include:

A. Start-to-start

B. Finish-to-start

C. Finish-to-finish

D. B and C only

E. A, B, and C.

ANS: E

80. Scope reporting is the timely determination, _____, and _____ of project progress, status data, and transforming this into structured

documentation (reports) necessary to judge project performance (reporting on work packages).

A. Recording, accumulation.

B. Recording, graphical display.

C. Accumulation, graphical display.

D. Graphical display, interpretation.

E. Interpretation, analysis.

ANS: A

PMP Questions - 3

2010-06-02T03:01:00.001-07:00

41. Management decision-making includes:

A. Analysis of alternatives.

B. Revisions/replanning.

C. Resource allocation.

D. Modification or updating of goals and objectives.

E. All of the above.

ANS: E

42. The basic terminology for networks includes:

A. Activities, events, manpower, skill levels and slack.

B. Activities, documentation, events, manpower and skill levels.

C. Slack, activities, events, and time estimates.

D. Time estimates, slack, sponsorship involvement, and activities.

E. Time estimates, slack time, report writing, life cycle phases, and crashing times.

ANS: C

43. The project manager must receive reports and briefings from engineers, contracting officers, procurement personnel and marketing people.

The project manager's communication dilemma is one of:

A. encoding

B. decoding

C. choice of a medium

D. one-way communication

E. All of the above.

ANS: E

44. The technique most commonly used to determine the profitability of a project includes _____ methods.

A. Net present value (NPV).

B. Return on investment (ROI).

C. Discounted cash flow (DCF)

D. Payout time and risk sensitivity analysis.

E. All of the above.

ANS: E

45. Which of the following are part of the purchasing cycle:

A. define need

B. prepare and issue purchase order

C. inspect incoming goods

D. All of the above.

E. A and B only

ANS: E

46. Which of the following is closest to Juran's definition of Quality:

A. conformance to requirements.

B. fitness for use.

C. continuous improvement.

D. customer focus.

E. All of the above.

ANS: B

47. A project element which lies between two events is called:

A. An activity.

B. A critical path method.

C. A slack milestone.

D. A timing slot.

E. A calendar completion point.

ANS: A

48. Employee unions would most likely satisfy which level in Maslow's hierarchy of needs?

A. Belonging

B. Self-actualization

C. Esteem

D. Safety

E. Empowerment

ANS: A

49. Management calls a meeting to explain to all employees the new benefits package for the rank and file. This is an example of:

A. Upward communication

B. Downward communication

C. One-way communication

D. Two-way communication

E. None of the above.

ANS: C

50. Project management/project planning is most closely aligned with:

A. Long range/strategic planning (5 years or more).

B. Intermediate range planning (1 to 5 years)

C. Short range/tactical planning (1 year or less).

D. All of the above.

E. B and C.

ANS: E

51. The profitability and technical data studies are provided in report format to owners and funders for acceptance. This type of report, used to

solicit funding, is referred to as a(n) _____.

A. Project feasibility study.

B. Economic evaluation analysis.

C. Risk management manual.

D. Prospectus.

E. None of the above

ANS: D

52. Which of the following constitute Juran's "quality trilogy":

A. planning, inspection, control.

B. planning, improvement, control.

C. planning, organization, control.

D. product, price, customer.

E. design, build, deliver.

ANS: B

53. Which of the following is most closely associated with business risk:

A. profit and loss

B. personnel turnover

C. workmen's compensation

D. liability insurance

E. All of the above.

ANS: A

54. Which of the following types of contracts is equivalent to a cost plus contract:

A. Fixed firm price

B. Cost reimbursable

C. Fixed price plus incentive fee

D. progress payments

E. All of the above.

ANS: B

55. A project manager recently rewarded an individual with a promotion that carried with it a very small salary increase but substantially more

responsibility. The project manager appears to be appealing to the employee's _____ need.

A. Monetary

B. Physiological

C. Esteem

D. Self-actualization

E. Team-building

ANS: C

56. Most project (and non-project) managers prefer _____ communications.

A. Oral

B. Written

C. Upward

D. Downward

E. Lateral

ANS: A

57. On a precedence diagram, the arrow between two boxes is called:

A. An activity.

B. A constraint.

C. An event.

D. The critical path.

E. None of above.

ANS: B

58. Quality control charts show a characteristic of the product or service against:

A. the specification limits.

B. customer requirements.

C. control limits based on three standard deviations in each direction.

D. control limits based on six standard deviations in each direction.

E. A and D only

ANS: C

59. The identification, definition, and selection of the project objectives as well as the best approach to achieving the project objectives are

indentified in the _____ phase of the project but first documented in the project _____.

A. Conceptual, charter/baseline.

B. Conceptual, master schedule.

C. Development, charter/baseline.

D. Development, master schedule.

E. Development, masterplan.

ANS: A

60. The work breakdown structure, the work packages, and the company's accounting system are tied together through the:

A. Code of accounts.

B. Overhead rates.

C. Budgeting system.

D. Capital budgeting process.

E. All of the above.

ANS: A

PMP Questions - 2

2010-06-02T02:59:00.001-07:00

21. The highest degrees of project risk and uncertainty are associated with the following phase of the project:

A. conceptual

B. execution

C. cut-over

D. post project evaluation

E. A and D only

ANS: A

22. The most common types of schedules are Gantt charts, milestone charts, line of balance, and:

A. Networks.

B. Time phased events.

C. Calendar integrated activities.

D. A and C only.

E. B and C only.

ANS: A

23. Which of the following is often overlooked in achieving effective communication?

A. speaking clearly

B. listening

C. interpreting

D. maintaining eye contact

E. manipulating the conversation

ANS: B

24. Which type of contract requires that the buyer keep the tightest labor/material cost control?

A. Cost Plus Incentive Fee

B. Cost Plus Percentage of Costs

C. Cost Plus Fixed Fee

D. Firm Fixed Price

E. Firm Fixed Price Plus Incentive

ANS: B

25. A task-oriented family tree of activities is a:

A. Detailed plan.

B. Linear responsibility chart.

C. Work breakdown structure.

D. Cost account coding system.

E. Work package description.

ANS: C

26. Adding 5 people to a 4 person team increases the communication channels by a factor of:

A. 2 times

B. 3 times

C. 4 times

D. 5 times

E. 6 times

ANS: E

27. Cost management includes:

A. Cost estimating/forecasting.

B. Cost budgeting/cost control.

C. Cost applications.

D. All of the above.

E. A and B only.

ANS: D

28. Participative Management:

A. involves the solicitation of information from all team members.

B. assumes that members avoid work and responsibility.

C. suggests the sharing of power and decision making.

D. employs a Theory X style of leadership.

E. A and C

ANS: E

29. The auditing function that provides feedback about the quality of output is referred to as:

A. quality control.

B. quality planning.

C. quality assurance.

D. quality improvement

E. All of the above.

ANS: C

30. The lowest dollar amount 'at stake' is associated with the following phase of the project:

A. conceptual

B. execution

C. cut-over

D. post project evaluation

E. A and D only

ANS: A

31. The major disadvantage of a bar chart is:

A. Lack of time-phasing.

B. Cannot be related to calendar dates.

C. does not show activity interrelationships.

D. Cannot be related to manpower planning.

E. Cannot be related to cost estimates.

ANS: C

32. Which contract type consists of - target costs & profit, ceiling prices and shared ratio of risk?

A. Cost Plus Incentive Fee

B. Cost Plus Percentage of Costs

C. Cost Plus Fixed Fee

D. Firm Fixed Price

E. Firm Fixed Price Plus Incentive

ANS: E

33. Methods and techniques used to examine cost and technical data are called feasibility studies. The economic aspects of a feasibility study

include interest rates, present worth factors, operating costs, depreciation and _____.

A. Capitalization costs.

B. Technical skill requirements.

C. Technology forecasting.

D. Strategic marketing intelligence.

E. All of the above.

ANS: A

34. Standard of purchased material:

A. Simplifies inventory control

B. reduces the risk of obsolescence

C. reduces cost of purchasing and storage

D. All of the above.

E. A and C only.

ANS: E

35. The "control points" in the work breakdown structure used for isolated assignments to work centers are referred to as:

A. Work packages.

B. Subtasks.

C. Tasks.

D. Code of accounts.

E. Integration points.

ANS: C

36. The utility of network-based schedules:

A. Reveals interdependencies.

B. Facilitates "what if" exercises.

C. Highlights critical activities.

D. Provides information on resource requirements, time requirements and tradeoffs.

E. All of the above.

ANS: E

37. The way a project manager sends and receives information depends upon:

A. How others relate to the project manager

B. The project manager's level in the organizational hierarchy

C. the size and nature of the project

D. the project manager's salary and age

E. the number of projects going on at one time in the company

ANS: A

38. Uncertainty refers to a situation where:

A. the outcomes are known but their probabilities are high

B. the outcomes and their probabilities are known

C. neither the outcomes nor their probabilities are known

D. states of nature can change at any time

E. probabilities of various states of nature can change at any time

ANS: C

39. Which of the following is closet to Deming's definition of Quality:

A. conformance to requirements.

B. fitness for use.

C. continuous improvement of products and services.

D. customer focus.

E. All of the above.

ANS: C

40. It is useful to conduct project risk assessment according to the project's

A. charter

B. statement of work

C. Work Breakdown structure

D. network

E. budget

ANS: C

PMP Questions - 1

2010-06-02T02:56:00.001-07:00

1. Communications is best described as:

A. an exchange of information.

B. providing written or oral directions.

C. consists of senders and receivers

D. effective listening.

E. All of the above

ANS: E

2. Fixed Price contracts place more risk on the:

A. owner

B. buyer

C. seller

D. contractor

E. C or D

ANS: E

3. Life cycle costing is the total cost to the customer for the acquisition and ownership over its full life. Life cycle costing categories include the cost

of _____, _____, and _____.

A. R & D, maintainability, operation and support.

B. R & D, production, operation and support.

C. Acquisition, operations, maintenance.

D. Production, operations, maintenance.

E. None of the above

ANS: B

4. Management By Objectives assumes that the team:

A. is receptive to an unstructured environment.

B. does not require close supervision.

C. possesses a self directed philosophy

D. identifies with project objectives.

E. All of the above.

ANS: E

5. Quality may be defined as:

A. conformance to requirements.

B. fitness for use.

C. continuous improvement of products and services

D. appeal to the customer

E. All of the above except B

ANS: E

6. Since risk is associated with most projects, the best course of action is to:

A. cover all project risks by buying appropriate insurance

B. ignore the risks, since nothing can be done about them and move forward with the project in an expeditious manner.

C. avoid projects with clear and present risks

D. eliminate all known risks prior to the execution phase of the project

E. identify various risks and implement actions to mitigate their potential impact

ANS: E

7. The process of choosing/documenting the best approach to achieve the project objectives is part of:

A. The scope baseline.

B. Scope authorization

C. Scope definition

D. Scope planning.

E. All of the above.

ANS: D

8. Time management is the allocation of time in a project's life cycle through the process of:

A. Planning

B. Estimating.

C. Scheduling.

D. Controlling

E. All of the above.

ANS: E

9. A comprehensive definition of scope management would be:

A. Managing a project in terms of its objective through the concept, development, implementation, and termination phases of a project.

B. Approval of the scope baseline.

C. Approval of the detailed project charter.

D. Configuration control.

E. Approved detailed planning including budgets, resource allocation, linear responsibility charts and management sponsorship.

ANS: A

10. Cost Plus Percentage of Cost contracts are more desirable for the:

A. owner

B. buyer

C. seller

D. contractor

E. C or D

ANS: E

11. Management styles associated with production environments, such as assembly lines commonly include:

A. a directing style of leadership.

B. a lack of confidence in their workers

C. assumption that workers lack ambition and dislike responsibility

D. a Theory X style of leadership

E. All of the above.

ANS: E

12. Quality management:

A. is another name for careful inspections.

B. is inversely related to productivity.

C. is primarily the responsiblity of management.

D. is primarily the responsibility of the workers.

E. is essentially a motivational technique.

ANS: C

13. Risk management allows the project manager and the project team to:

A. eliminate most risks during the planning phase of the project

B. identify project risks

C. identify impacts of various risks

D. plan suitable responses

E. B, C and D only

ANS: E

14. Scheduling is the process by which decisions are made concerning:

A. Tasks to be accomplished.

B. Personnel/organization that will be assigned to accomplish the task.

C. Time when the tasks are to be completed.

D. All of the above.

E. A and C only.

ANS: E

15. The basic elements of communication include:

A. Listening, talking and sign language.

B. Communicator, encoding, message, medium, decoding, receiver, and feedback

C. Clarity of speech and good listening habits

D. Reading, writing and listening

E. All of the above

ANS: B

16. Which of the following would most likely increase the accuracy of estimating the project cost?

A. Pricing out the work at lower levels in the work breakdown structure.

B. Using historical data.

C. Talking to people who have worked on similar projects.

D. All of the above.

E. A and C only.

ANS: D

17. A variance envelope has been established on a project. The envelope goes from +-30% in R&D to +-5% during manufacturing. The reason for

the change in thickness of the envelope is because:

A. The management reserve has been used up.

B. The accuracy of the estimates in manufacturing are worse than the estimates in R & D.

C. Tighter controls are always needed as a project begins to wind down.

D. Of the personal desires of the project sponsor.

E. Of none of the above

ANS: E

18. Cost of quality is:

A. associated with non-conformance to specifications and requirements.

B. primarily caused by poor workmanship of workers who are building or manufacturing the product.

C. used to determine whether a quality management program is suitable for a given project.

D. negligible for most large projects.

E. A and B

ANS: A

19. Management plans include all of the following except:

A. Organization of project.

B. Job descriptions.

C. Policies and procedures.

D. Linear responsibility charts.

E. Scope baseline.

ANS: E

20. The Japanese resource management model exhibits:

A. a cooperative spirit of goal setting.

B. non-specialized career paths

C. frequent changes in team assignments

D. a Theory Z style of management

E. All of the above.

ANS: E

MPM-002 - Project Planning and Organization - 4

2010-06-01T00:19:00.001-07:00

1. Scope statement is not helpful in:

A Detailed planning of the project's scope

B Improving communication among stakeholders

C Earned value calculations

D Establishing better understanding among team members

2. When defining the scope we are mainly concerned with:

A Including only the work required to successfully complete the project

B Excluding all unnecessary work

C Ensuring stakeholder needs are met

D All of the above

3. Work not included in the WBS is:

A To be detailed out later

B Outside the scope of the project

C Will be taken care of at the time of change control

D Needs management attention

4. WBS provides all of the following except:

A The basic foundation tool for the total project's planning and control

B The list of work packages

C Basis for the development of the organizational breakdown structure and the cost breakdown structure (CBS)

D The schedule of project activities

5. The work package within a work breakdown structure is ______________:

A A group of activities defining the milestone

B A group of activities defined under primary headings

C The rollout task primary to the structure

D The lowest level of the work breakdown structure

6. A work package has:

A Specific duration

B A quality objective

C Limited resources available

D All of the above

7. Using the work breakdown structure indicated below, an instance of a work package is:

1.0.0. Build house

1.1.0. Excavate

1.1.1. Survey

1.1.2. Dig hole

1.2.0. Prepare foundation

A Excavate

B Survey

C Build house

D Prepare foundation

8. The work package is the lowest level of WBS for:

A Controlling time in manageable way

B Controlling cost in a manageable way

C Controlling resources in a manageable way

D All of above

9. At what level of detail would you form a work package in the WBS in order to review your contractor's work?

A Normally it will be 1 to 2 levels higher then what would be used for monitoring work done internally

B At a lower level than if the work was being done internally

C It does not matter

D Depends on the contractor's willingness

10. Scope management plan provides the basis as how:

A Changes will be identified and classified

B Changes made in WBS will be integrated into the project

C Stability of project can be seen

D All of the above

MPM-002 - Project Planning and Organization

2010-05-31T23:46:00.001-07:00

1. Scope management plan is necessary:

A For small projects only

B For all kind of projects

C For complex projects

D For R& D projects only

2. Increasing the level of the WBS from 3rd to 4th level will result in:

A Extra efforts to be spent with less return

B Being part of the fashion to go in more depth

C Better control of the project

D More headaches in reporting progress

3. Work not included in the WBS is:

A To be detailed out later

B Outside the scope of the project

C Will be taken care of at the time of executing the project

D Needs management attention

4. Select three features found in the WBS from the list below:

1 A graphical display of the total project work

2 Work to be included in the WBS is decided as the project moves along

3 Is required only for large projects

4 Shows the hierarchy of the persons involved in the project

5 the total quantum of project work broken down into smaller groups of activities

6 Is detailed top-down

7 Is detailed bottom-up

5. The work breakdown structure is an excellent tool for detailing the work content of a project. However, which of the following will not be gained through the WBS:

A Assessing the quality of the work performed

B Assessing the risk impact

C Assessing the time estimates

D Assessing the cost estimates

6. When do you think the WBS should first be created?

A During scope changes in a project

B During the feasibility study

C When the project is being executed

D At beginning of a project in the planning phase

7. A project network is a graphical display showing ……………………….:

A arrows and nodes

B sequence of project activities

C activities

D resources used in the project

8. The network is used by the project manager to:

A Identify relationship between tasks

B Optimize the usage of resources

C Develop the project schedule

D All of the above

9. Two techniques used for drawing project networks are known as:

A Activity and Arrow drawing methods

B Arrow and circle drawing methods

C ADMs and PDMs

D ADMs and ADCs

10. The person drawing the network must to be clear about:

A The project's goals and objectives

B The duration of each activity

C The logical sequence of activities

D All of the above

Short Practice Test - 4 (20 Questions)

2010-02-15T00:28:00.000-08:00

1. The critical path is the:

A Shortest path in the network

B Longest path in the network

C Path in which some activities contain floats

# D Path which has the maximum float

2. What items should be considered when selecting a supplier?

A Dependability

B Product quality

C Location

# D All of above

3. Project integration involves:

A Efficient use of network schedules

# B Effective coordination and control

C Making the responsibility matrix

D Meetings of all the stakeholders

4. The Project Management Plan is owned by the:

A Sponsor

B Customer

C Project manager

# D A and C

5. A project is a:

A Repetitive process

B Unique and temporary endeavour

C Has a definite beginning and end

# D B and C

6. A sequence of phases through which the project evolves is known as:

# A The Project Life Cycle

B Project Gates

C Milestone charts

D Project Management Plan

7. The Project Management Plan establishes the:

# A Why, what, how, and when of the project

B What, how, how much and when of the project

C Why, what, how, how much and when of the project

D Why, what, how and how much of the project

8. A good project manger does not have to be a good:

# A Technocrat

B Communicator

C Integrator

D Risk manager

9. Which of the following is necessary for a project manager?

# A The responsibility, authority and accountability for the project

B The responsibility and accountability for the project

C The responsibility through line management for the project

D The responsibility through the client-sponsor for the project

10. A project phase is:

A An endeavor of considerable scope encompassing a number of projects

B A sub project

C The state of the project at a given time

D Marked by completion of one or more deliverable

11. The Business case should include:

A Criteria to judge whether the project is a success or failure

B Why the project is required

C The major project risks

# D All of the above

12. _____________defines why the project is required and what the project will do:

A Project Management Plan

B Project Charter

C Marketing & Sales

# D Business Case

13. Project life cycle phases are used to:

A Avoid the need for a project manager

B Lessen the conflict in project teams

# C Ensure that resources are not wasted

D Better define the Business case

14. Which of the following is not true about analogous estimating technique?

A Estimate is based on past projects.

B It is not very accurate.

# C It uses bottom-up approach

D It is a form of an expert judgment

15. An “S” curve:

A Shows cumulative values

B Describes allocation of resources

# C An output of cost estimating

D Shows interrelationships between projects

16. A Work Breakdown Structure:

A Is a key tool used in project management

B Forms the basis for planning the project, networks and bar chart

C Criteria used for calculating Earned Value is determined from the WBS

# D All of the above

17. The project is likely to be delayed if:

# A There are too many changes

B If proper planning is carried out in the beginning

C There is a no shortage of cash

D There are no quality assurance functions

18. “I cannot test the software until I code the software”. This expression describes which of the following dependencies?

A Discretionary

B Soft

# C Mandatory or hard

D Regulated

19. On large projects, detailed documentation:

A Should be avoided to the extent possible since it adds to bureaucracy and project costs

B Has costs that typically lie in the 10%-15% range

# C Is needed to keep track of what is happening

D A and B

20. The Project Management Plan should be formally accepted by the:

A Project Manager

B Project Manager, Sponsor and project team

C Project Manager and Sponsor

# D Customer

Short Practice Test - 3 (20 Questions)

2010-02-15T00:24:00.001-08:00

1. A very common pitfall in effective communication is:

A Not selecting the correct medium

B Not considering the position of the receiver

# C Assuming that because a message is sent, it has been received

D Not selecting the correct audience to receive the message

2. Which is the single most important ingredient for building an effective team?

# A Effective communications skills

B Appropriate experience

C Trust

D Willingness to accept change

3. Each project is divided into several project phases. Project management follows this approach in order to:

A Improve management control of the project

B Provide links to the organizations ongoing operations

C Better control on resource deployment as resource requirements may vary from phase to phase

# D All of the above

4. In the beginning of a project, the probability of successfully completing the project is ______ , risk is _____ and uncertainty is _______:

A Lowest, lowest, lowest

B Highest, highest, highest

C Lowest, highest, highest

D Highest, lowest, lowest

5. Project stakeholders are defined as those who can _________:

# A Involved in the project and /or can have positive or negative influence on their interests due to project execution

B Only be involved in the project execution

C Have only the influence in the investment decisions

D Be the member of the Board of a corporation

6. All of the following techniques consider time value of money except:

A Payback period

B Discounted cash flow

C Net present value

# D Internal rate of return

7. What is not true of standard deviation?

A A larger standard deviation means the spread of uncertainty is greater

B A smaller standard deviation means the spread of uncertainty is smaller

C Standard deviation of an activity is calculated using the formula (Pessimistic - Optimistic) / 6

# D PERT is used for estimating costs and time duration

8. As a project is being closed out, a common source of conflict arises in:

A Determining the best use of the time of design personnel

# B Different interpretations between buyer and contractor as to whether the terms and conditions have been met

C Determining whether the cost-plus-actual fee (CPAF) or cost-plus-incentive fee (CPIF) contract structure is most appropriate

D Identifying the primary causes of monthly variances on the project

9. Lessons learned is an important part of project management. These are documented by the project team in order to:

A Assess each team members competence

B Know who to blame for errors

# C Use them to improve future projects

D Review the project’s cost and schedule

10. Project A has a probability of scope change of .70, and a .20 probability that the project will be terminated. What is the probability the project will have scope changes and will not be terminated?

A 0.24

# B 0.56

C 0.14

D 0.06

11. Your project is an important one for the company and it was a feather in your cap to be selected as the project manager. Unfortunately, the project is not progressing as well as planned and it will be reviewed in the next board meeting. Which of the following is not a common format for performance reporting and should not be used by you for management reporting?

A Bar charts

# B S-curves

C Histograms

D Precedence diagrams

12. Written change orders are recommended:

# A For all size of projects

B For small projects only

C For large projects only

D For those projects where CEO is personally interested

13. Project Management is most suitable for:

A Optimizing repetitive operations

B Introduction of new control procedures

C Introducing change

# D B and C

14. Project phasing is done to:

A Overlap project work

B For better access of project by team members

# C Break down the project into more manageable blocks

D Break down the project finances

15. Project management should be applied:

# A Throughout the project life cycle

B During Concept definition

C During Execution and Operations

D During Execution, Operations and Maintenance

16. The Business Case is owned by the

A Project manager

B Finance manager

# C Sponsor

D Customer

17. A WBS is used to:

A Define the project's schedule

B To identify the project's stakeholders

# C To organize and define the total scope of the project

D To define key parts of the project

18. Decomposition of project deliverables involves:

# A Identifying the elements of the deliverable

B Identifying major elements of the project

C Verify the decomposition is correct

D All of above

19. The project manager has least level of direct authority in a ........... organization:

A Weak matrix

# B Functional

C Projectised

D Strong matrix

20. Environmental constraints should be considered:

A For manufacturing projects

# B For construction projects

C For all projects

D Only for social and political projects

Short Practice Test - 2 (20 Questions)

2010-02-15T00:18:00.000-08:00

1. 'A task can start only after it's predecessor task has started' is a ------------ relationship.

A Critical

# B Start to start

C Concurrent

D Finish to start

2. The positioning of work package inside a work breakdown structure is ______________:

A Insignificant as it is a set of activities which need to be carried out and not work packages

B The highest level within the structure

C The middle level within the structure

# D The lowest level within the structure

3. You notice that your client has made a calculation mistake and made an excess payment to you. What should you do?

A It is not your problem. Client should have used computers

# B Bring it to the client’s attention

C Do not worry as any way you were loosing money on this contract, extra money will help you to recover some losses

D Ignore it until matter comes into notice

4. Activity C is part of an on-going project. The activity has a total duration of 15 days, the early start is day 25 and the late start is day 30. Two activities D and F both have a finish to start dependency with activity C. Activity D is the critical activity. This implies that activity C:

# A Is a critical activity as activities D and F are dependent on it

B Will delay the project end date if it does not begin on day 25 of the project

C Does not lie on the critical path

D Has a float of 15 days

5. Complex projects that require a multi disciplinary approach will be most suited to which of the following structures:

A CEO driven

B A functional organization

# C A strong matrix organization

D A weak matrix organization

6. You are required to examine the consequences of a scope change. To do this you should view its impact on the project’s:

A Schedule

B Cost

C Quality

# D All of the above

7. When you are contemplating how to recover a delay in the project schedule, the last thing you should consider is to _______:

A Look at the critical path carefully

# B Apply more resources

C Fast track the project

D Adjust the project end date to adjust the time delay

8. One should have an attitude of ____________ in order to be successful in negotiating across global cultures:

A Forcing your position

B Distrust

# C Mutual trust and cooperation

D Showing your company is the best

9. If the project manager does not allow the team members to provide extra items as an addon to please the customers while in execution phase, is she//he following the principles of good scope management to complete all the work and only the work required?

A May be yes or no

B No

C Yes

# D It depends

10. Configuration management is a technique used in:

# A Change control

B Project control

C Time control

D Scope control

11. You are involved in identifying risks using the Delphi technique. Which statement is true about this technique?

A Participants should be known to each other

B Participants cannot be in different locations

C Participants are generally anonymous

# D Delphi technique is generally not used to identify risks

12. You are required to prepare reports for top management that only show the start/end dates and likely durations of the critical path activities. To do this you would use:

A Bar charts

B PDM network

# C Milestone charts

D Pert networks

13. The 80/20 rule often used in projects is depicted as a:

A Control chart

B Attribute variable

# C Pareto chart

D Run chart

14. The project manager of a large multidisciplinary engineering project is evolving a RAM (Responsibility Assignment Matrix) to assign the different roles and responsibilities for her team members. She must use:

# A The project’s WBS and the organizational chart

B The WBS

C The network schedule

D The staff productivity

15. In a project, quality control helps to:

A Prevent production of defective material

B Identify established specifications and influence results through specific data

C Check for quality compliance by monitoring project results

# D All of the above

16. During the execution of a project two team members get into a serious disagreement about how to proceed with a task that they are working on. This disagreement is seriously affecting the work on the project. The project manager holds a meeting with both of them to sort out the issues. He discusses the best way to approach the task and both team members agree with him. This method of settling differences can best be described as:

A Compromising

B Forcing

C Smoothing

# D Confronting/problem solving

17. Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the project manager?

A Monitoring project progress

B Project Integration

C Budgeting project costs

# D Developing the Project charter

18. Normally, increased complexities in a project will _______ uncertainties:

A Have nothing to do with

B Reduce

C Increase

# D Can not say any thing about

19. Project plans are primarily developed by the:

A CEO

B Functional managers

# C Project manager with involvement of the project team

D Project team alone

20. When communicating, project managers spend most of their time _______:

A Reporting

# B Exchanging information

C On the phone

D Solving problems

Short Practice Test - 1 (20 Questions)

2010-02-14T20:56:00.001-08:00

1. The priority of the Quality function is ________ priority:

# A Equal to cost and schedule

B Higher than cost and schedule

C Lower than cost and schedule

D None of the above

2. A Pareto diagram helps the project manager to :

# A Focus on the most critical issues to improve quality

B Focus on stimulating thinking

C Explore a desired future outcome

D Determine if a process is out of control

3. What will be shown in a Gantt chart but not in a responsibility matrix?

A Time

B Tasks

# C Interrelationships

D Who is in charge of each task

4. A work package is:

A The lowest level of a work breakdown structure

B The level of the WBS where cost data are collected

C Made up of multiple costs accounts

# D A and B

5. The scope baseline is the original:

A Project schedule and budget

# B Description in the project charter

C Project Plan plus or minus approved changes

D Performance measure

6. In the context of projects, temporary means that:

# A Projects have a finite time duration with definite start and end dates

B Every project has a definite beginning

C The project can be cancelled at any point of time depending upon the whims of the senior executive

D Projects have no significance to the permanent sustainability of a corporation

7. A work breakdown structure is most useful for:

A Identifying individual tasks for a project

B Scheduling the start of tasks

C Developing a cost estimate

# D A and C

8. If a risk has a 50% chance of happening in any given month, and if the project is expected to last for 8 months, the probability that this risk event will occur during the last month of the project is:

A 25%

# B 50%

C 75%

D 100%

9. In the arrow diagramming method (ADM), __________ do not consume time or resources:

# A Events

B Activities

C Float

D Arrows

10. In a three time estimate using PERT, if the optimistic estimate for a task is 6 days and pessimistic estimate is 12 days, what is the most likely estimate if the mean is 7 days:

A 7 days

B 8 days

# C 6 days

D 12 days

11. A negative float is present when?

A The late start date is earlier than the early start date

# B The critical path supports the imposed end date

C The early finish date is equal to the late finish date

D The late start date is later than early start date

12. Task B cannot begin until 10 days after task A begins is best described as a:

A Finish to start relationship

B Start to start relationship

# C Start to start with a 10 days lag

D Start to start with a 5 day lead

13. Amongst all of the following, the most important component of project control is the:

# A Project charter

B Project schedule

C Work breakdown structure

D Assignment of responsibility for work

14. Which of the following is most frequently used to indicate task relationships?

A Bar chart

# B Network diagram

C Gantt chart

D Work breakdown structure

15. Preliminary cost estimates are meaningful during the _______ phase of the project:

A Conceptual

# B Planning

C Control

D Execution

16. Your project work requires that you must wait for 3 days before you can begin the subsequent activity. What is this relationship called?

A Lead

B External dependency

# C Lag

D Discretionary dependency

17. If you are a project team member how could you make use of floats?

A Use the floats to crash the project

# B Utilize the floats to optimize use of resources

C Fast track the activities that have floats

D All of the above

18. When can a non-critical activity become a critical activity?

A Not possible

B If the activity does not start by it's Latest Start date

C When the project progress shows the activity has a negative float

# D B and C

19. Project trade-offs vary between:

A Risk, cost and schedule

B Direct cost, indirect cost and resource availability

# C Cost, quality and schedule

D Quality, procurement and time

20. Bar charts are easy to use for:

A Establishing the logical relationships between the activities

B Paying more attention to the details

# C Reviewing progress at a summary level

D Assigning various tasks to team members

Term End Exam Instructions

2009-12-30T20:07:00.000-08:00

Dear Student,
This booklet contains the some relevant information of Term End Examination of Post Graduate
Certificate in Project Management (PGCPM) of the University. In this examination, you will have
to appear in four courses, namely MPM-001, MPM-002, MPM-003 and MPM-004.
The examination will be Computer mediated Semi-online where the question paper will be
available on computer screen and you have to answer on specially designed OMR response
sheet to be made available in the Examination Hall. In the beginning of each exam, password
will be announced by the centre to open the question paper on computer. The question paper
will be displayed in Acrobat Reader 9.0.
Since the format of the Term End Examination is a bit different from conventional pen and
paper exam, it is necessary for you to know in advance the format of question paper and about
the way in which you are required to answer the questions appearing on the computer screen.
This handout will help you in this respect.
ABOUT THE TERM END EXAMINATION AND ITS QUESTION PAPER
1. Students have to download the Hall Ticket one week before the exams and paste a recent
passport size photograph and produce in the examination centre.
2. In the examination centres, the students are to produce the I-Card issued by the university along with any one of the following documents :
• Passport issued by Govt. of India
• Election I Card issued by Election Commission
• PAN Card issued by Income Tax Deptt.
• Driving License issued by Transport Authority
3. The examination will be Computer mediated Semi-online where the question paper will be available on computer screen and you have to answer on the physical OMR Sheet provided by the exam centre. In the beginning of each exam, password will be announced by the centre to open the question paper on computer. The paper will be displayed in Acrobat Reader 9.0.
4. There will be two sessions, i.e. Morning and Afternoon Sessions. Each session will have
examination for two courses. There will be 30 min break between the two courses in
each session. The timings for the sessions will be as follows :
Morning Session Afternoon Sessoin
MPM-001 9:30 AM-11:00 AM MPM-003 2:00 PM-3:30 PM
MPM-002 11:30 AM-1:00 PM MPM-004 4:00 PM-5:30 PM
5. Students are allowed inside the Examination Hall at 9:00 AM and must be seated by 9:15 AM so that they may fill up their particulars on OMR sheet and spend time in reading the instructions carefully. In case a candidate comes after 30 min from the schedule time of exam(s), (s)he will not be allowed to appear the examination in that course.
6. Supplementary answer script will be given to each student at the beginning of examination for each course for doing rough work. This will be retained at the examination centre.
7. The use of scientific non-programmable calculator is allowed in the exam.
8. There will be no negative marking.
9. There will be three sections of questions with following details :
Section A : Multiple Choice Questions with 1 mark each
Section B : Multiple Choice Questions with 2 mark each
Section C : Multiple Choice Numerical Questions with 5 marks each.
10. Section A Question will be from 1-25, Section B will be from 26-35 & Section C from 36-40 in MPM-001 & MPM-002
11. There will be only Section A and Section B in MPM-003 & MPM-004. Out of which 10 questions will be from Section A and 30 Questions will be from Section B.
12. There will be no subsection within a Question.
13. For clearing a course, one has to secure 50% marks in CAC and TEE separately with overall aggregate of 60%.

HOW TO FILL-UP THE INFORMATION ON THE OMR SHEET
You may fill up your own information in this answer sheet so that you may correctly fill up the
actual OMR examination answer sheet in the examination hall. While filling up the OMR
examination answer sheet, you should follow the following guidelines :
1. On Side B of the OMR Sheet, write your complete Enrolment Number (also your login
ID) in 9 digits. This should correspond to the Login ID already supplied to you. Also
write your correct name, address with pin code in the space provided, in ink. Put your
signatures on the OMR Sheet with date, in ink. Ensure that the invigilator in your
examination hall also puts his/her signatures with date on the OMR Sheet at the space
provided.
2. On Side A of the OMR Sheet, write correct information in numerical digits in Enrolment Number, Course Code, Examination Centre Code, Month and Year Columns. The column of Course Code should be filled as 0001, 0002, 0003 and 0004 for MPM-001, MPM-002, MPM-003 and MPM-004 respectively. The column of Programme Code may be left blank. The corresponding circle should be darkened
enough and filled-in completely. For example, suppose your Enrolment No. and Examination Centre Code are 145786159 and 1246 respectively. This information is indicated on sample OMR answer sheet attached with this handout. You should use only HB pencil to make the answers of the questions on the Side A of OMR Sheet.
3. Do not make any stray marks on the OMR Sheet.
4. Each question is followed by four probable answers, which are numbered 1, 2, 3, and 4.
you should select and show only one answer to each question considered by you as the
most appropriate or the correct answer. Select the most appropriate answer. Then by
using HB pencil, blacken the circle bearing the correct answer number against the serial
number of the question. You are also advised to write with the pencil the Sl. No. of
selected answer in the rectangle provided on the top. If you find that answer to any
question is none of the four alternatives given under the questions you
should darken the circle ‘0’.
5. If you wish to change your answer, ERASE completely the already darkened circle by
using a good quality eraser and then blacken the circle bearing your revised answer
number. If incorrect answer is not erased completely, smudges will be left on the erased
circle and the question will be read as having two answers by the Optical Mark
Reader (OMR) and will be ignored for giving any credit.
6. No credit will be given if more than one answer is given for one question.
7. You should not spend too much time on any one question. If you find any particular
question difficult, leave it and go to the next. If you have time left after answering all
the questions, you may go back to the unanswered ones.

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. Mobile phones, calculators, books, slide-rules, foot rulers, notebooks or written notes,
etc. are not allowed inside the examination hall.
2. You should follow the instructions given by the Centre Superintendent, Observers and
by the Invigilators at the examination venue. If you violate the instructions, you will be
disqualified.
3. Any candidate found copying or receiving or giving assistance in the examination will be
disqualified.
4. The OMR Sheet would be supplied to you by the Invigilators. After the examination
is over, you should hand over the OMR Answer Sheet to the Invigilator before
leaving the examination hall. Any candidate who does not return the OMR Sheet will
be disqualified.
5. Candidate arriving after 30 min. of scheduled commencement of the examination will
not be permitted to enter the examination hall.
6. All rough work is to be done on the supplementary answer booklet supplied by the
centre and not on any other paper. Scrap paper is not permitted.
7. The University reserves the right to cancel scores of any candidate who impersonates or
uses malpractices. The examination is conducted under uniform conditions. The
University would also follow a procedure to verify the validity of scores of all examinees
uniformly. If there is substantial indication that your performance is not genuine, the
University may cancel your score.
SOME IMPORTANT INFORMATION
Here is some important information, which you will require at the time of you test.
Programme : PGCPM
Course Name : 0001 for MPM-001
0002 for MPM-002
0003 for MPM-003
0004 for MPM-004
Enrolment No. : Same as Login ID supplied to you in Hall Ticket by IGNOU
Examination Centre Code : As indicated in the Hall Ticket downloaded from IGNOU website
Programme Code : To be left blank.
Month : Month of the test in two digits, viz. 06 for June or 12 for December
Year : Year of the test in four digits, viz. 2009 or 2010

MPM-002 - Project Planning and Organization (Set 2)

2009-12-16T20:12:00.001-08:00

1. Success stories of projects of all sizes showed that ____________ was/were kept bare minimum

A Scope changes

B Scope baselines

C Confusion due to scope change

D All of the above

2. Should the scope baseline be kept as sacrosanct as possible throughout the project life cycle?

A Not necessary, we should be more adaptable

B Not necessary, as changes will take place for sure

C Yes, that is the challenge

D Not necessary as we should be open to new ideas

3. In today's context of change, is it worthwhile to spend more time to define the scope in clear terms?

A No

B Yes

C Cannot say

D It depends on the size of the project

4. With time becoming a critical resource, too much time and resources spent in defining the scope _______

A Is a wasteful expenditure

B Will allow competitors to be ahead of us

C Will make us late in delivering services

D Will give us better control on the overall project

5. More clarity by defining scope in detail will increase the probability of project success

A No

B Yes

C Depends on the type of projects

D Depends on the type of customers

6. Projects are undertaken to create:

A Products and Services

B Employment and job satisfaction

C High performing teams

D Continuity of operations and services

7. How much clarity should there be in the description of the product or service being created by the project?

A Reasonable

B High level

C Medium level

D Low level

8. Which would not be used in scope planning?

A WBS templates

B Scope management plan templates

C Critical path method

D Information and expertise gathered from relevant experts

9. Scope planning is done to:

A Progressively elaborate the work of the project

B Develop and document a scope statement for the project

C Clarify and concretize the project deliverables

D All of the above

10. Scope statement should make reference to all except:

A Product acceptance criteria

B Project objectives

C Project deliverables

D The project's network schedule

MPM-002 - Project Planning and Organization (Set 1)

2009-12-16T20:10:00.001-08:00

1. Which is the closest statement defining project start-up?

A When the project manager gets the team together to celebrate the start of the project

B When the CEO gives the project manager clearance to start the project

C It is characterized by great uncertainty and considerable time pressures

D It is the initial phase of the project life cycle

2. Planning for the project is done in order to:

A Decide the work that needs to be done

B Plan the scope of the project

C Plan the time, scope and cost of the project

D Understand what we need to do and plan how to do the work

3. Which of the following is not a subsidiary plan of the project management plan?

A Risk Plan

B Quality Control plan

C Project plan

D Staffing plan

4. The Project Management Plan:

A Should be avoided for small projects as takes too much time

B Provides communication regarding the project to all the stakeholders

C Is like a Statement of Work

D None of the above

5. The Project Management Plan is one of the most important documents in the project as it is:

A Used to execute the project

B Used to monitor and control the project

C Uses the outputs of other planning processes

D All of the above

6. In the Project Management Plan, the -------------- and -------------- are management’s statement of the project’s success criteria:

A Why, what

B Why and How

C How, How much

D Why, when

7. The Project Management Plan should be approved by the:

A CEO

B Client

C Sponsor

D Both Sponsor and the Project manager

8. A plan is necessary to:

A Organize the work

B Define the scope of work

C Mobilize resources

D All of the above

9. It is desirable to define and discuss the project's success criteria during which phase of the project life cycle?

A Before the conceptualization phase of the project

B During the conceptualization phase of the project

C In the implementation phase of the project

D Throughout the project

10. The success criteria:

A Is the same for all the stakeholders

B Defines the qualitative and quantitative measures to judge the project’s success

C Is decided by the project manager

D Is always measured in terms of cost

MPM-003 - Project Implementation and Control (Set 7)

2009-12-13T22:16:00.001-08:00

1. Withdrawing, smoothing, forcing are all forms of:

A Power

B Motivating the team

C Conflict resolution

D Management styles

2. Communication barriers can be caused by:

A Culture

B Information hoarding

C Security

D All of the above

3. In a fixed price contract, the fee or profit is:

A Calculated by the seller after incorporating all costs including risks before finalizing the contract value

B Part of the negotiation involved in paying every invoice

C Applied as a line item to every invoice

D Determined with the other party at the end of the project

4. Your functional manager is in charge of your appraisal but for project work you report to your project manager. This means you are working in a _________ team:

A Functional team

B Matrix team

C Mixed team

D Project team

5. What is not true of a contract?

A All concerned parties must be of legally competent

B All concerned persons should be above the legal age limit

C Agreement must be for a legal purpose

D One party forces the other to sign the contract

6. Which of the following is not Information Gathering Technique?

A Documentation reviews

B Ishikawa Template

C Interviewing

D Delphi technique

7. The assumption analysis method involves the following three steps except:

A Identifying the assumptions

B Preparing the risk mitigation plan

C Assessing the sensitivity and stability of the assumptions

D Generating a list of risks

8. Which of the following is not the Component of a contract?

A An Offer

B An Agreement

C A Bill

D A Consideration

9. Expectancy theory was developed by?

A Victor Vroom

B Herzberg

C McGregor

D Blake and Mouton

10. If total float/slack is greater than zero?

A There is a margin for delay

B Time is available

C Shows the project is behind schedule

D A & B

MPM-003 - Project Implementation and Control (Set 6)

2009-12-13T21:59:00.001-08:00

1. The time necessary to complete the project is referred to as:

A Operations time

B Execution time

C Life cycle

D Feasibility

2. You are the project manager of a three year engineering project and are ready to begin executing the project. Your customer now informs you that they want you to replace the current technology and use a new, just released technology in the project. What should be your first action in response to this request?

A Request the project sponsor to say no to the customer

B Discuss the impact of this change on the project's cost and schedule with the customer

C Assess the impact of using this new, untested technology on the project

D Appoint a team member to begin executing this change immediately

3. The use of informal verbal communication is most appropriate for which of the following:

A When you need to contact the client urgently

B Informing the contractor about a scope change

C When the interpreter has a short memory

D Discussing work assignments

4. In a fixed price contract, who faces the maximum risk?

A The seller

B The buyer

C Both seller and buyer

D It will depend on the type of project

5. The staffing management plan for the project should contain all of the following except:

A Time frame when staff will be needed

B Resource histogram

C Responsibility assignment matrix

D Source for obtaining each resource

6. The main responsibilities of the core team members is:

A To provide expertise and manage elements of the work

B Help in developing the work breakdown structure (WBS)

C Communicate with the stakeholders of the project

D To accept the project deliverable

7. Conflict between project team and stakeholders regarding timescales, costs and payment schedules will arise during?

A Project selection

B Implementation

C Project planning

D Hand over

8. You are required to highlight key payment points in the project work. To do this you would use:

A Milestones

B Project calendars

C A start-start relationship between two activities in the network

D Performance reports

9. One of our weakest communication skills is ______:

A Speaking clearly

B Listening

C Interpreting

D Manipulating the conversation

10. Team building needs to be done:

A At the beginning of the project

B Throughout the project life cycle

C During project implementation

D During project planning

MPM-003 - Project Implementation and Control (Set 5)

2009-12-13T21:56:00.001-08:00

1. A Pareto chart represents information in:

A Order of trivial issues which can be bypassed

B Order of priority to focus on non-critical issues

C Order of priority to focus on critical issues

D Random order

2. A Pareto chart is based on the:

A 80/20 rule

B 60/40 rule

C 50/50 rule

D 25/75 rule

3. ______________ is used to keep track of all change requests along with related status information through the project life cycle

A Change control

B Change management

C Change Review

D Change log

4. Change control is the process to keep a track of the changes and to ensure that they are __________

A Analyzed and controlled

B Controlled and implemented

C Analyzed and implemented

D Analyzed, controlled and implemented

5. Which of the following is not a component of change control procedure

A Review of change request

B Confirm/reject request

C Configuration management

D Make changes

6. External performance reporting involves collecting and disseminating performance related information to provide _________ with information about how the ________ are being used to achieve the project objectives

A Stakeholders, resources

B Management, project personnel

C Management, Resources

7. Required Information helps in execution of a project by reducing _________

A Cost of the project

B Monitoring of the project

C Duration of the project

D Risk in the project

8. Herzberg's Factor theory states:

A Workers need incentives and money to be motivated

B Workers are lazy by nature and need management motivation talks

C If hygiene factors are maintained then workers are not de-motivated and dissatisfied

D Workers need no extra support as they are as much motivated as the upper management

9. What is the order of Maslow's hierarchy of needs theory?

A Health, safety, intellectual, esteem and self actualization

B Physiological, safety, social, esteem and self actualization

C Physiological, health, social, political recognition and self actualization

D Physiological, safety, health, esteem and self actualization

10. The best way to resolve a conflict is:

A Smoothing

B Confronting/problem solving

C Smoothing and forcing

D Compromising

MPM-003 - Project Implementation and Control (Set 4)

2009-12-13T21:53:00.001-08:00

1. Which of the following options does not fall under the category of Macro barriers to communication?

A Organizational climate

B Cultural differences

C Lack of Knowledge

D Project jargon

2. Issue log is necessary for:

A Reviewing the performance of the project team members

B Assessing the team performance

C Making sure that issues get attention for resolution

D Justifying to top management why things could not be delivered

3. In projects contract management is concerned with:

A The buyer

B The buyer and the seller

C The contract manager

D The seller

4. What is not part of a contract:

A Is binding on the parties

B An agreement between competent parties

C Involves the payment of a consideration

D Can be for any purpose

5. Which one is not a procurement document?

A Invitation for Bid (IFB)

B Request for Proposal (RFP)

C Contract close out

D Request for Quotation (RFQ)

6. All the risk in a contract is :

A The buyers

B The sellers

C There is no risk

D Could be buyers or sellers or both

7. In a good contract system which is not considered?

A Good change control

B Keeping information to yourself

C Payments to be made as per contract

D Closing the contract formally

8. Issue analysis is important because:

A It helps to pinpoint the unresolved issues

B It helps to understand the nature of issues

C It helps to force resolution

D All of the above

9. Flowcharts can be best described as:

A A pictorial display of a series of random steps

B A sequence of steps of any process or project

C A pictorial representation of a sequence of steps of a process/project

D A process drawn using prefixed symbols

10. Histograms are:

A Vertical bar charts

B Summarize and show distribution of variables over a time period

C The frequency of occurrence of each variable is represented by height of the bars

D All of the above