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CCNA Sample Job Technical Interview Questions - CCNA Exam Multiple CHoice Questions

noreply@blogger.com (hita) — Sun, 28 Jun 2009 14:02:00 +0000

CCNA Exam Multiple Choice Sample Questions of Multiple Choice Type for the certification test and job technical interview purposes for freshers / experienced networking professionals.

1. As system administrator, you type “debug ipx sap” and receive the following lines as part of the IOS response: type 0×4, “HELLO2?, 199.0002.0003.0006 (451), 2 hops type 0×4, “HELLO1?, 199.0002.0003.0008 (451), 2 hops What does “0×4? signify?
* That is a Get Nearest Server response.
* That it is a General query.
* That it is a General response.
* That it is a Get Nearest Server request.
Correct answer: A
2. To monitor IP igrp traffic, you can use “debug IP igrp transaction” or “debug IP igrp events”. How do you display information about IPX routing update packets?
* debug routing
* debug ipx transaction
* debug ipx routing activity
* debug ipx events
Correct answer: C

3. To monitor ipx traffic on a network, what command would you use?
* debug ipx transaction
* show ipx traffic
* show ipx events
* display ipx traffic
Correct answer: B

4. What command would you use to find out the names of Novell servers on a network?
* show ipx servers
* show ipx hosts
* show ipx sap
* show ipx nodes.
Correct answer: A
5. The “ipx delay number” command will allow an administrator to change the default settings. What are the default settings?
* For LAN interfaces, one tick; for WAN interfaces, six ticks
* For LAN interfaces, six ticks; for WAN interfaces, one tick
* For LAN interfaces, zero ticks; for WAN interfaces, five ticks
* For LAN interfaces, five ticks; for WAN interfaces, zero Ticks
Correct answer: A

The default is–for LAN interfaces, one tick; for WAN interfaces, six ticks
6. As a system administrator, you need to set up one Ethernet interface on the Cisco router to allow for both sap and Novell-ether encapsulations. Which set of commands will accomplish this?
* interface ethernet 0.1 ipx encapsulation Novell-ether ipx network 9e interface ethernet 0.2 ipx network 6c
* interface ethernet 0 ipx encapsulation Novell-ether ipx network 9e interface ethernet 0 ipx encapsulation sap ipx network 6c
* interface ethernet 0.1 ipx encapsulation Novell-ether interface ethernet 0.2 ipx encapsulation sap
* interface ethernet 0.1ipx encapsulation Novell-ether ipx network 9e interface ethernet 0.2 ipx encapsulation sap ipx network 6c
Correct answer: D

The following commands setup the subinterfaces to allow for two types of encapsulation: interface ethernet 0.1 ipx encapsulation Novell-ether ipx network 9e interface ethernet 0.2 ipx encapsulation sap ipx network 6c
7. What does the “IPX maximum-paths 2? command accomplish?
* It enables load sharing on 2 paths if the paths are equal metric paths.
* It sets up routing to go to network 2.
* It is the default for Cisco IPX load sharing.
* It enables load sharing on 2 paths if the paths are unequal metric paths.
Correct answer: A

It enables load sharing on 2 paths if the paths are equal metric paths. The default is 1 path and the maximum is 512 paths.
8. You want to enable both arpa and snap encapsulation on one router interface. How do you do this?
* The interface can handle multiple encapsulation types with no extra configuration.
* Assign two network numbers, one for each encapsulation type.
* Enable Novell-ether to run multiple encapsulation types.
* Both arpa and snap are enabled by default so you don’t have to configure anything.
Correct answer: B

To assign multiple network numbers, you usually use subinterfaces. A sample configuration follows: ipx ethernet 0.1 ipx encapsulation novell-ether ipx network 9e interface ethernet 0.2 ipx encapsulation sap ipx network 6c
By default, Cisco routers forward GNS SAPs to remote networks.
* False
* True
Correct answer: A
GNS is Novell’s protocol to Get Nearest Server. If there is a server on the local network, that server will respond. If there isn’t, the Cisco router has to be configured to forward the GNS SAP.
9. To prevent Service Advertisements (SAPs) from flooding a network, Cisco routers do not forward them. How are services advertised to other networks?

* Each router builds its own SAP table and forwards that every 60 seconds.
* Each router assigns a service number and broadcasts that.
* SAPs aren’t necessary with Cisco routers.
* Cisco routers filter out all SAPs.
Correct answer: A
Cisco routers build SAP tables and forward the table every 60 seconds. All SAPs can’t be filtered even with 4.x since NDS and time synchronization uses SAPs.
10. Novell’s implementation of RIP updates routing tables every ____ seconds.
* 60
* 90
* 10
* 30
Correct answer: A

Novell’s RIP updates routing tables every 60 seconds, Apple’s RTMP is every 10 seconds, routers ARP every 60 seconds, IGRP signal every 90 seconds, and Banyan VINES signals every 90 seconds.
11. In Novell’s use of RIP, there are two metrics used to make routing decisions. Select the two metrics.
* Ticks.
* Hops
* Loops
* Counts
Correct answer: A &B

It first uses ticks (which is about 1/18 sec.); if there is a tie, it uses hops; if hops are equal, then it uses an administratively assigned tiebreaker.
12. What is the Cisco name for the encapsulation type used on a serial interface?
* HDLC
* SDLC
* SAP
* SNAP
Correct answer: A
13. “arpa” is used by the Cisco IOS for which encapsulation types?
* Ethernet_II
* Ethernet_802.3
* Ethernet_802.2
* Ethernet_SNAP
Correct answer: A
14. Novell’s IPX and Cisco’s IOS name their protocols differently. Cisco uses sap for Ethernet_802.2, Token-Ring, and Novell’s FDDI_802.2. Cisco uses snap for Ethernet_SNAP, Token-Ring_SNAP, and FDDI_SNAP. Cisco uses arpa for Ethernet_II and, finally the default is Novell-ether for Novell’s Ethernet_802.3. “snap” is used by the Cisco IOS for which encapsulation types?
* Ethernet_SNAP
* Token-Ring_SNAP
* FDDI_SNAP
* Novell-SNAP
* Novell-FDDI.

Correct answer: A,B &C
15. Novell’s IPX and Cisco’s IOS name their protocols differently. Cisco uses sap for Ethernet_802.2, Token-Ring, and Novell’s FDDI_802.2. Cisco uses snap for Ethernet_SNAP, Token-Ring_SNAP, and FDDI_SNAP. Cisco uses arpa for Ethernet_II and, finally the default is Novell-ether for Novell’s Ethernet_802.3.15 “sap” is used by the Cisco IOS for which encapsulation types?
* Ethernet_802.2
* Token-Ring
* FDDI_SNAP
* Ethernet_802.3

* FDDI_802.2
Correct answer: A,B &E
16. Novell’s IPX and Cisco’s IOS name their protocols differently. Cisco uses sap for Ethernet_802.2, Token-Ring, and Novell’s FDDI_802.2. Cisco uses snap for Ethernet_SNAP, Token-Ring_SNAP, and FDDI_SNAP. Cisco uses arpa for Ethernet_II and, finally the default is Novell-ether for Novell’s Ethernet_802.3. Which type of Ethernet framing is used for TCP/IP and AppleTalk?
* Ethernet 802.3
* Ethernet 802.2
* Ethernet II

* Ethernet SNAP
Correct answer: D
Ethernet 802.3 is used with NetWare versions 2 through 3.11, Ethernet 802.2 is used with NetWare 3.12 and later plus OSI routing, Ethernet II is used with TCP/IP and DECnet, and Ethernet SNAP is used with TCP/IP and AppleTalk.
17. Which type of Ethernet framing is used for TCP/IP and DECnet?
* Ethernet 802.3
* Ethernet 802.2
* Ethernet II

* Ethernet SNAP
Correct answer: C
Ethernet 802.3 is used with NetWare versions 2 through 3.11, Ethernet 802.2 is used with NetWare 3.12 and later plus OSI routing, Ethernet II is used with TCP/IP and DECnet, and Ethernet SNAP is used with TCP/IP and AppleTalk.
18. You are a system administrator on a NetWare network, you are running NetWare 4.11 and you cannot communicate with your router. What is the likely problem?
* NetWare 4.11 defaults to 802.2 encapsulation.
* NetWare 4.11 defaults to 802.3 encapsulation
* Cisco routers only work with NetWare 3.11.

* NetWare 3.11 defaults to 802.2 encapsulation.
Correct answer: A
The default encapsulation on Cisco routers is Novell Ethernet_802.3 and NetWare 3.12 and later defaults to 802.2 encapsulation, 3.11 and earlier defaults to 802.3.
19. NetWare IPX addressing uses a network number and a node number. Which statements are true?
* The network address is administratively assigned and can be up to 16 hexadecimal digits long.
* The node address is always administratively assigned.
* The node address is usually the MAC address.

* If the MAC address is used as the node address, then IPX eliminates the use of ARP.
Correct answer: A, C &D
The network address can be up to 16 hexadecimal digits in length. The node number is 12 hexadecimal digits. The node address is usually the MAC address. An example IPX address is 4a1d.0000.0c56.de33. The network part is 4a1d. The node part is 0000.0c56.de33. The network number is assigned by the system administrator of the Novell network.
20. Which NetWare protocol works on layer 3–network layer—of the OSI model?
* IPX
* NCP

* SPX
* NetBIOS
Correct answer: A
IPX (Internetwork Packet Exchange) is a NetWare network layer 3 protocol used for transferring information on LANs.
21. Which NetWare protocol provides link-state routing?
* NLSP
* RIP

* SAP
* NCP
Correct answer: A
NetWare Link Services Protocol (NLSP) provides link-state routing. SAP (Service Advertisement Protocol) advertises network services. NCP (NetWare Core Protocol) provides client-to-server connections and applications. RIP is a distance vector routing protocol.
22. As a system administrator, you want to debug igrp but are worried that the “debug IP igrp transaction” command will flood the console. What is the command that you should use?
* debug IP igrp event
* debug IP igrp-events

* debug IP igrp summary
* debug IP igrp events
Correct answer: D
The “debug IP igrp events” is used to only display a summary of IGRP routing information. You can append an IP address onto either command to see only the IGRP updates from a neighbor.
23. What does the following series of commands accomplish? router igrp 71 network 10.0.0.0 router igrp 109 network 172.68.7.0
* It isolates networks 10.0.0.0 and 172.68.7.0.
* It loads igrp for networks 109 and 71.

* It disables RIP.
* It disables all routing protocols.
Correct answer: A
It isolates network 10.0.0.0 and 172.68.7.0 and associates autonomous systems 109 and 71 with IGRP. IGRP does not disable RIP, both can be used at the same time.
24. In the command “router igrp 109? what does 109 signify?
* an autonomous system
* any network number which the router is attached to

* the allowable length of the routing table
* the network socket number
Correct answer: A
The Cisco IOS global configuration command “router igrp xxx” is used to configure the Interior Gateway Routing Protocol. In this case, the 109 is called the process-id , which can also be used for an autonomous system number.
25. IGRP supports a feature that allows traffic to be distributed among up to 6 (4 default) paths to provide greater overall throughput and reliability. What is this called?
* unequal-cost load balancing
* equal-cost load balancing

* proportionate load balancing
* low cost load balancing
Correct answer: A
An unequal-cost load balancing is used to provide alternate paths for data distribution on an internetwork. Cisco developed this method to use unused or under utilized links to increase bandwidth and network availability.
26. IGRP uses flash updates, poison reverse updates, holddown times, and split horizon. How often does it broadcast its routing table updates?
* 90 seconds
* 10 seconds

* 30 seconds
* 45 seconds
Correct answer: A
27. The command “show IP protocol” displays which information?
* routing timers
* network information

* contents of the IP routing table
* information about all known network and subnetworks
Correct answer: A & B
“show IP protocol” displays routing timers and network information. “show IP route” displays the routing table with information about all known networks and subnetworks.
28. When using RIP, routing updates are broadcast every ____ seconds.
* 30

* 10
* 60
* 90
Correct answer: A
Novell’s RIP updates routing tables every 60 seconds, Apple’s RTMP is every 10 seconds, routers ARP every 60 seconds, DECnet hosts and IGRP signal every 15 seconds, and Banyan VINES signals every 90 seconds.
29. An autonomous system can only exist if all routers in that system meet which criteria?
* interconnected

* run the same routing protocol
* assigned same autonomous system number
* run IGRP only
* run RIP only
Correct answer: A,B &C
An autonomous system is a set of routers and networks under the same administration. Each router must be interconnected, run the same routing protocol, and assigned the same autonomous system number. The network Information Center (NIC) assigns a unique autonomous system number to enterprises.
30. A default route is analogous to a _________.
* default gateway
* static route
* dynamic route
* one-way route
Correct answer: A

A default route is analogous to a default gateway. It is used to reduce the length of routing tables and to provide complete routing capabilities when a router might not know the routes to all other networks.
31. Routers can learn about destinations through static routes, default, or dynamic routing. By default, a router will use information derived from __________.
* IGRP
* RIP
* IP
* TCP
Correct answer: A

The quality of information is rated:
Connected interface 0
Static route 1
IGRP 100
RIP 120
Unknown 255
The lower the value, the more reliable the source with 255 signifying information that the router will ignore. So, the router will use IGRP, rated at 100, before RIP, rated at 120.
32. You are logged into a router, what command would show you the IP addresses of routers connected to you?
* show cdp neighbors detail

* show run
* show neighbors
* show cdp
Correct answer: A
33. As a system administrator, you perform an extended ping at the privileged EXEC prompt. As part of the display, you see “Set DF bit in IP header? [yes] :” What would happen if you answered no at the prompt.
* This lets the router fragment the packet.

* It tells the router not to fragment the packet.
* This lets the router direct the packet to the destination it finds in its routing table.
* It tell the router to send the packet to the next hop router
Correct answer: A
“Set DF bit in IP header?” is a response to an extended ping at the router. If you answer yes (the default) the router will not fragment the packet. If you answer no, the router will fragment the packet.
34. You have typed “ping” 172.16.101.1 and get the following display: Type escape sequence to abort. Sending 5, 100-byte ICMP Echoes to 172.16.101.1, timeout is 2 seconds:
.!!!!

What does the “.” signify?
* That one message timed out.
* That all messages were successful.
* That one message was successful.
* That one message completed in under the allotted timeframe.
Correct answer: A

The possible responses from the ping command are: ! Successful receipt of an echo reply. Timed out waiting for a reply U Destination unreachable C Congestion-experienced packet I Ping interrupted ? Packet type unknown & Packet TTL exceeded
35. Which command, that is used to test address configuration, uses Time-To-Live (TTL) values to generate messages from each router.
* trace
* ping
* telnet
* bootp

Correct answer: A
The Cisco IOS EXEC command “trace [protocol] [destination]” is used to discover routes that packets will travel to their destination hosts. Trace uses TTL (Time to Live) values to report destination route information.
36. What does the command “IP name-server 255.255.255.255? accomplish?

* It sets the domain name lookup to be a local broadcast.
* This is an illegal command.
* It disables domain name lookup.
* The command is now defunct and has been replaced by “IP server-name ip any”

Correct answer: A
By default DNS is enabled on a router with a server address of 255.255.255.255, which provides for a local broadcast.
37. As a system administrator, you need to provide your routers with a Domain Name System (DNS) server. How many DNS servers can you specify with one command?
* 6
* 1
* 2
* 4

Correct answer: A
You can only specify six name servers in one command. The syntax is “IP name-server server-address1 [[ server-address2 ]…server-address6]. You must also enable
DNS.
38. How would you configure one host name that points to two IP addresses?
* IP host jacob 1.0.0.5 2.0.0.8
* IP jacob 1.0.0.5 2.0.0.8
* IP host jacob 1.0.0.5

* IP host duplicate “all”
Correct answer: A
The correct syntax is IP host name [ TCP-port-number ] address [ address ]….. So, “IP host P1R1 1.0.0.5 2.0.0.8? is the correct choice. “IP host jacob 1.0.0.5? only points the host name jacob to one IP address–1.0.0.5.
39. The following selections show the command prompt and the configuration of the IP network mask. Which two are correct?
* Router#term IP netmask-format { bitcount | decimal | hexadecimal }
* Router(config-if)#IP netmask-format { bitcount | decimal | hexadecimal }
* Router(config-if)#netmask-format { bitcount | decimal | hexadecimal }

* Router#ip netmask-format { bitcount | decimal | hexadecimal }
Correct answer: A & B
Router#term IP netmask-format { bitcount | decimal | hexadecimal } and Router(config-if)#IP netmask-format { bitcount | decimal | hexadecimal } are correct. You can configure the mask for the current session and you can configure it for a specific line.
40. When configuring the subnet mask for an IP address, which formats can be used?
* dotted-decimal.
* Hexadecimal

* Bit-count
* Octal
* Binary
Correct answer: A, B &C
41. You are given the following address: 153.50.6.27/25. Determine the subnet mask, address class, subnet address, and broadcast address.
* 255.255.255.128, B,153.50.6.0, 153.50.6.127

* 255.255.255.128, C,153.50.6.0, 153.50.6.127
* 255.255.255.128, C,153.50.6.127, 153.50.6.0
* 255.255.255.224, C,153.50.6.0, 153.50.6.127
Correct answer: A
42. You are given the following address: 128.16.32.13/30. Determine the subnet mask, address class, subnet address,
and broadcast address.

* 255.255.255.252, B,128.16.32.12, 128.16.32.15
* 255.255.255.252, C,128.16.32.12, 128.16.32.15
* 255.255.255.252, B,128.16.32.15, 128.16.32.12
* 255.255.255.248, B,128.16.32.12, 128.16.32.15
Correct answer: A
43. You are given the following address: 15.16.193.6/21. Determine the subnet mask, address class, subnet address,

and broadcast address.
* 255.255.248.0, A, 15.16.192.0, 15.16.199.255
* 255.255.248.0, B, 15.16.192.0, 15.16.199.255
* 255.255.248.0, A, 15.16.199.255, 14.15.192.0
* 255.255.242.0, A, 15.16.192.0, 15.16.199.255
Correct answer: A
44. You have an IP host address of 201.222.5.121 and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.248. What is the broadcast address?
* 201.222.5.127
* 201.222.5.120
* 201.222.5.121
* 201.222.5.122
Correct answer: A

The easiest way to calculate this is to subtract 255.255.255.248 (subnet mask) from 255.255.255.255, this
equals 7. Convert the address 201.222.5.121 to binary–11001001 11011110 00000101 01111001. Convert the
mask 255.255.255.248 to binary–11111111 11111111 11111111 11111000. AND them together to get: 11001001 11011110
45. 01111000 or 201.222.5.120. 201.222.5.120 is the subnet address, add 7 to this address for 201.222.5.127 or
the broadcast address. 201.222.5.121 through 201.222.5.126 are the valid host addresses.
46. Given the address 172.16.2.120 and the subnet mask of 255.255.255.0. How many hosts are available?
* 254
* 510

* 126
* 16,372
Correct answer: A
172.16.2 120 is a standard Class B address with a subnet mask that allows 254 hosts. You are a network administrator and have been assigned the IP address of 201.222.5.0. You need to have 20 subnets with 5 hosts per subnet. The subnet mask is 255.255.255.248.
47. Which addresses are valid host addresses?
* 201.222.5.17
* 201.222.5.18

* 201.222.5.16
* 201.222.5.19
* 201.222.5.31
Correct answer: A,B & D
Subnet addresses in this situation are all in multiples of 8. In this example, 201.222.5.16 is the subnet, 201.22.5.31 is the broadcast address. The rest are valid host IDs on subnet 201.222.5.16.
48. You are a network administrator and have been assigned the IP address of 201.222.5.0. You need to have 20 subnets with
49. hosts per subnet. What subnet mask will you use?
* 255.255.255.248
* 255.255.255.128
* 255.255.255.192
* 255.255.255.240
Correct answer: A

By borrowing 5 bits from the last octet, you can. have 30 subnets. If you borrowed only 4 bits you could only have 14 subnets. The formula is (2 to the power of n)-2. By borrowing 4 bits, you have (2×2×2×2)-2=14. By borrowing 5 bits, you have (2×2×2×2×2)-2=30. To get 20 subnets, you would need to borrow 5 bits so the subnet mask would be 255.255.255.248.
50. You are given the IP address of 172.16.2.160 with a subnet mask of 255.255.0.0. What is the network address in binary?
* 10101100 00010000
* 00000010 10100000
* 10101100 00000000
* 11100000 11110000
Correct answer: A

To find the network address, convert the IP address to binary–10101100 000100000 00000010 10100000–then ANDed it with the subnet mask–11111111 11111111 00000000 00000000. The rest is 10101100 00010000 00000000 00000000, which is 172.16.0.0 in decimal.
The first octet rule states that the class of an address can be determined by the numerical value of the first octet.
51. Which addresses are INCORRECTLY paired with their class?
* 128 to 191, Class B
* 192 to 223 Class B
* 128 to 191, Class C
* 192 to 223, Class C

Correct answer: B & C
Address classes are: 1 to 126, Class A; 128 to 191, Class B, 192 to 223, Class C; 224 to 239, Class D; and
52. to 255, Class E. The first octet rule states that the class of an address can be determined by the numerical value of the first octet.
53. Which addresses are INCORRECTLY paired with their class?
* 1 to 126, Class A
* 128 to 191, Class A

* 1 to 126, Class B
* 128 to 191, Class B
Correct answer: B & C.
Address classes are: 1 to 126, Class A; 128 to 191, Class B, 192 to 223, Class C; 224 to 239, Class D; and
54. to 255, Class E. The first octet rule states that the class of an address can be determined by the numerical value of the first octet.
55. Which addresses are INCORRECTLY paired with their class?

* 240 - 255, Class D
* 240 - 255, Class E
* 224 - 239, Class D
* 224 - 239, Class E
Correct answer: A & D

Address classes are: 1 to 126, Class A; 128 to 191, Class B, 192 to 223, Class C; 224 to 239, Class D; and 240 to 255, Class E.
56. Which IP Address Class is INCORRECTLY paired with its range of network numbers?
* Class A addresses include 192.0.0.0 through 223.255.255.0
* Class A addresses include 1.0.0.0 through 126.0.0.0
* Class B addresses include 128.0.0.0 through 191.255.0.0
* Class C addresses include 192.0.0.0 through 223.255.255.0
* Class D addresses include 224.0.0.0 through 239.255.255.0

Correct answer: A
Class A addresses include 1.0.0.0 through 126.0.0.0
Class B addresses include 128.0.0.0 through 191.255.0.0
Class C addresses include 192.0.0.0 through 223.255.255.0
Class D addresses include 224.0.0.0 through 239.255.255.0
57. Which IP Address Class can have 16 million subnets but support 254 hosts?
* Class C
* Class A

* Class B
* Class D
Correct answer: A
Possible Subnets IP Address Class Possible Hosts
58. A 16M.
64K B 64K
16M C 254
59. Which IP Address Class can have 64,000 subnets with 64,000 hosts per subnet?
* Class B
* Class A
* Class C
* Class D
Correct answer: A

IP Address Class Possible Subnets Possible Hosts
60. A 16M
64K B 64K
16M C 254
61. There are two processes to pair MAC address with IP addresses. Which process finds an IP address from a MAC address?
* RARP
* ARP
* RIP

* IGRP
Correct answer: A
ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) maps an IP address to the MAC address, RARP (Reverse Address Resolution Protocol) maps the MAC address to the IP address. ARP and RARP work at the internet layer of the Internet Model or the network layer of the OSI model.
62. When the router runs out of buffer space, this is called ________.
* Source Quench
* Redirect
* Information Request

* Low Memory
Correct answer: A
Source quench is the process where the destination router, or end internetworking device will “quench” the date from the “source”, or the source router. This usually happens when the destination router runs out of buffer space to process packets.
63. Which protocol carries messages such as destination Unreachable, Time Exceeded, Parameter Problem, Source Quench, Redirect, Echo, Echo Reply, Timestamp, Information Request, Information Reply, Address Request, and Address Reply?
* ICMP
* UDP
* TCP

* TFTP
* FTP
Correct answer: A
ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) is a network layer internet protocol described in RFC # 792. ICMP reports IP packet information such as destination Unreachable, Time Exceeded, Parameter Problem, Source Quench, Redirect, Echo, Echo Reply, Timestamp, Information Request, Information Reply, Address Request, and Address Reply.
64. Two of the protocols that can be carried in the Protocol field of an IP packet are?
* TCP
* UDP

* FTP
* TFTP
Correct answer: A & B
The following are the fields in an IP segment,
their length, and their definitions:
VERS (Version number - 16 bits)

HLEN (Number of 32-bit words in the header - 4 bits)
Type of Server (How the datagram should be handled - 32 bits)
Total Length (Total length of header and data - 32 bits)
Identification (Provide fragmentation of datagrams to allow different MTUs in the internet - 4 bits)
Flags (Provide fragmentation of datagrams to allow different MTUs in the internet - 4 bits)
Frag Offset (Provide fragmentation of datagrams to allow different MTUs in the internet - 6 bits)
TTL (Time-To-Live - 6 bits)
Protocol (Upperlayer protocol sending the datagram - 16 bits)
Header Checksum )Integrity check on the header - 16 bits)

Source IP Address (32 bits)
Destination IP Address (32 bits)
IP Options (network testing, debugging, security and others - 4 bits)
Data (4 bits).
65. Where would network testing be included in an IP packet?
* IP Options field
* Identification field
* Type of Service field

* Reservation field
Correct answer: A
The following are the fields in an IP segment, their length, and their definitions:
VERS (Version number - 16 bits)
HLEN (Number of 32-bit words in the header - 4 bits)
Type of Server (How the datagram should be handled - 32 bits)
Total Length (Total length of header and data - 32 bits)
Identification (Provide fragmentation of datagrams to allow different MTUs in the internet - 4 bits)

Flags (Provide fragmentation of datagrams to allow different MTUs in the internet - 4 bits)
Frag Offset (Provide fragmentation of datagrams to allow different MTUs in the internet - 6 bits)
TTL (Time-To-Live - 6 bits)
Protocol (Upperlayer protocol sending the datagram - 16 bits)
Header Checksum )Integrity check on the header - 16 bits)
Source IP Address (32 bits)
Destination IP Address (32 bits)
IP Options (network testing, debugging, security and others - 4 bits)
Data (4 bits).
66. What field tells the Internet layer how to handle an IP packet?
* Type of Service
* Identification
* Flags
* Frag Offset
Correct answer: A

The following are the fields in an IP segment, their length, and their definitions:
VERS (Version number - 16 bits)
HLEN (Number of 32-bit words in the header - 4 bits)
Type of Server (How the datagram should be handled - 32 bits)
Total Length (Total length of header and data - 32 bits)
Identification (Provide fragmentation of datagrams to allow different MTUs in the internet - 4 bits)
Flags (Provide fragmentation of datagrams to allow different MTUs in the internet - 4 bits)
Frag Offset (Provide fragmentation of datagrams to allow different MTUs in the internet - 6 bits)
TTL (Time-To-Live - 6 bits)

Protocol (Upperlayer protocol sending the datagram - 16 bits)
Header Checksum )Integrity check on the header - 16 bits)
Source IP Address (32 bits)
Destination IP Address (32 bits)
IP Options (network testing, debugging, security and others - 4 bits) Data (4 bits).
67. Which fields of an IP packet provide for fragmentation of datagrams to allow differing MTUs in the internet?
* Identification
* Flags

* Frag Offset
* Type of Service
* Total Length
Correct answer: A, B & C
The following are the fields in an IP segment, their length, and their definitions:
VERS (Version number - 16 bits)

HLEN (Number of 32-bit words in the header - 4 bits)
Type of Server (How the datagram should be handled - 32 bits)
Total Length (Total length of header and data - 32 bits)
Identification (Provide fragmentation of datagrams to allow different MTUs in the internet - 4 bits)
Flags (Provide fragmentation of datagrams to allow different MTUs in the internet - 4 bits)
Frag Offset (Provide fragmentation of datagrams to allow different MTUs in the internet - 6 bits)
TTL (Time-To-Live - 6 bits)
Protocol (Upperlayer protocol sending the datagram - 16 bits)
Header Checksum )Integrity check on the header - 16 bits)

Source IP Address (32 bits)
Destination IP Address (32 bits)
IP Options (network testing, debugging, security and others - 4 bits)
Data (4 bits).
68. Which processes does TCP, but not UDP, use?
* Windowing
* Acknowledgements
* Source Port

* Destination Port
Correct answer: A & B
UDP (User Datagram Protocol) does not use sequence or acknowledgement fields in transmission.
UDP is a connectionless and unreliable protocol, since there is no delivery checking mechanism in the UDP data format.
69. What is the UDP datagram format?
* Source Port - 16 bits, Destination Port - 16 bits, Length - 16 Bits, Checksum - 16 bits, Data

* Destination Port - 16 bits, Source Port - 16 bits, Length - 16 Bits, Checksum - 16 bits, Data
* Source Port - 16 bits, Destination Port - 16 bits, Checksum - 16 Bits, Length - 16 bits, Data
* Source Port - 8 bits, Destination Port - 8 bits, Length -8 Bits, Checksum - 8 bits, Data
Correct answer: A
The UDP format for a segment is as follows:
Source Port 16 bits
Destination Port 16 bits

Length 16 bits
Checksum 16 bits
Data xx bits
70. What is the function of DDR on Cisco routers?
* DDR is dial–on-demand routing. It provides a continuous LAN only connection.
* DDR is dial-on-demand routing. It provides routing for high volume traffic.
* DDR is dial–on-demand routing. It provides a continuous WAN connection.

* DDR is dial-on-demand routing. It provides routing for low volume and periodic traffic.
Correct answer: D
DDR is dial-on-demand routing. It provides routing for low volume and periodic traffic. It initiates a call to a remote site when there is traffic to transmit.
71. What are the two types of access lists that can be configured on a Cisco router?
* Standard
* Extended
* Filtering

* Packet
Correct answer: A & B
The access lists are standard and extended. Standard access lists for IP check the source address of packets that could be routed. Extended access lists can check the source and destination packet plus check for specific protocols, port numbers, etc.
72. When using access lists, what does a Cisco router check first?
* To see if the packet is routable or bridgeable
* The destination address

* The source address
* The packet contents
Correct answer: A
The first thing checked is to see if the packet is routable or bridgeable. If it is not, the packet will be dropped.
73. How many access lists are allowed per interface?
* One per port, per protocol
* Two per port, per protocol

* Unlimited
* Router interface +1 per port.
Correct answer: A
Only one access list is allowed per interface. An access list must have conditions that test true for all packets that use the access list.
74. What do the following commands accomplish?
access-list 1 deny 172.16.4.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 1 permit any interface ethernet 0

IP access-group 1 out
* This will block traffic from subnet 172.16.4.0 and allow all other traffic.
* This will allow traffic from subnet 172.16.4.0 and block all other traffic.
* All traffic is allowed.
* All traffic is blocked.
Correct answer: A

This will block traffic from subnet 172.16.4.0 and allow all other traffic. The first statement “access-list 1 deny 172.16.4.0 0.0.0.255? will deny access to the subnet 172.16.4.0.
75. What do the following statements in an extended access list accomplish?
access-list 101 deny TCP 172.16.4.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 eq 21
access-list 101 deny TCP 172.16.4.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.3.0 0.0.0.255 eq 20
access-list 101 permit TCP 172.16.4.0 0.0.0.255 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255
* This will block ftp traffic.
* This will block http traffic.
* This will permit ftp traffic.

* This will permit tftp traffic.
Correct answer: A
This will block ftp traffic since ftp uses ports 20 and 21.
76. Access lists are numbered. Which of the following ranges could be used for an IP access list?
* 600 - 699
* 100 - 199
* 1 - 99

* 800 - 899
* 1000 - 1099
Correct answer: wer: B & C
AppleTalk access lists use numbers in the 600 - 699 range. IP uses 1 - 99 for standard access lists or 100-199 for extended access lists. IPX uses 800 - 899 or 900 - 999 for extended access lists. IPX SAP filters use 1000 - 1099.
77. Cisco routers use wildcard masking to identify how to check or ignore corresponding IP address bits. What does setting a wildcard mask bit to 0 cause the router to do?
* It tells the router to check the corresponding bit value.

* It tells the router to ignore the corresponding bit value.
* It tells the router to check its alternate routing list.
* It tells the router to use its primary routing list.
Correct answer: A
It tells the router to check the corresponding bit value.
78. You are a system administrator and you want to deny access to a group of computers with addresses 172.30.16.0 to 172.30.31.0. Which wildcard mask would you use?
* 0.0.15.255

* 0.0.255.255
* 0.0.31.255
* 0.0.127.255
* 0.0.255.255
Correct answer: A
0.0.15.255 will check the last 13 bits of an address so that computers 172.30.16.0 to 172.30.31.0 will be denied access. 0.0.31.255 would check the last 6 binary digits and deny access to addresses 172.30.32.0 to 172.30.63.0. 0.0.127.255 would check the last 7 binary digits and deny access to addresses 172.30.64.0 to 172.30.127.0. 0.0.255.255 would deny 172.30.0.0 to 172.30.254.0. If you write decimal 15 in binary, you have 0001111, the 1’s tell the router to ignore address with these bits set; 0’s tell the router to check the bits. The third octet for 172.30.16.0 is 00010000. The third octet for 172.30.31.0 would be 00011111. So, traffic from these addresses would be denied.
79. In order to limit the quantity of numbers that a system administrator has to enter, Cisco can use which abbreviation to indicate 0.0.0.0?
* host
* any
* all
* include
Correct answer: A

Cisco uses host to specify 0.0.0.0. This tells the router to check all. Cisco uses any to specify 255.255.255.255. This tells the router to ignore all and permit any address to use an access list test.
80. What do the following commands accomplish?
access-list 1 permit 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255
interface ethernet 0
IP access-group 1 out
interface ethernet 1
IP access-group 1 out
* Only traffic from the source network 172.16.0.0 will be blocked.

* Only traffic from the source network 172.16.0.0 will be forwarded. Non-172.16.0.0 network traffic is blocked.
* Non-172.16.0.0 traffic will be forwarded.
* All traffic will be forwarded.
Correct answer: B
Only traffic from the source network 172.16.0.0 will be forwarded. Non-172.16.0.0 network traffic is blocked. The wildcard mask 0.0.255.255 tells the router to check the first 2 octets and to ignore the last 2 octets.
81. When using access lists, it is important where those access lists are placed. Which statement best describes access list placement?
* Put standard access lists as near the destination as possible. Put extended access lists as close to the source as possible.

* Put extended access lists as near the destination as possible. Put standard access lists as close to the source as possible.
* It isn’t import where access lists are placed since the router will read and cache the whole list.
* Put access lists as close to corporate headquarters as possible.
Correct answer: A
Put standard access lists as near the destination as possible. Put extended access lists as close to the source as possible. Standard access lists don’t specify the destination address.
82. As the system administrator, you enter the following commands at the command prompt:
ipx routing

access-list 800 permit 2b 4d
int e0
ipx network 4d
ipx access-group 800 out
int e1
ipx network 2b
int e2
ipx network 3c
What did these command accomplish?

* Traffic from network 4c destined for network 4d will be forwarded out Ethernet0.
* Traffic from network 3c destined for network 4d will be forwarded out Ethernet0.
* Traffic from network 2b destined for network 4d will be forwarded out Ethernet0.
* Traffic from network 4d destined for network 2d will be forwarded out Ethernet0.
Correct answer: C
Traffic from network 2b destined for network 4d will be forwarded out Ethernet0. The other interfaces E1 and E2 are not subject to the access list since they lack the access group statement to link them to access list 800.
83. The following commands were entered at the command prompt of a Cisco router. What do they accomplish?
access-list 1000 deny 9e.1234.5678.1212 4
access-list 1000 permit -1
interface ethernet 0
ipx network 9e
interface ethernet 1
ipx network 4a
interface serial 0
ipx network 1

ipx output-sap-filter 1000
* File server advertisements from server 9e.1234.5678.1212 will not be forwarded on interface S0.
* All other SAP services, other than file server, from any source will be forwarded on S0.
* All other SAP services, other than print server, from any source will be forwarded on S0.
* Print server advertisements from server 9e.1234.5678.1212 will not be forwarded on interface S0.
Correct answer: A & B

File server advertisements from server 9e.1234.5678.1212 will not be forwarded on interface S0. All other SAP services, other than file server, from any source will be forwarded on S0.
84. You receive “input filter list is 800 and output filter list is 801? as part of the output from a show interfaces command. What kind of traffic are you filtering?
* IPX/SPX
* TCP/IP
* LocalTalk
* DDR
Correct answer: A

Because the access list is numbered in the 800 range, you are filtering IPX/SPX traffic.
85. Which service uses telephone control messages and signals between the transfer points along the way to the called destination?
* Signaling System 7 (SS7)
* Time-division Multiplexing (TDM)
* X.25
* Frame relay
Correct answer: A

Signaling System 7 (SS7) uses telephone control messages and signals between the transfer points along the way to the called destination. Time-division Multiplexing (TDM) has information from multiple sources and allocates bandwidth on a single media. Circuit switching uses signaling to determine the call route, which is a dedicated path between the sender and the receiver. Basic telephone service and Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) use TDM circuits. X.25 and Frame Relay services have information contained in packets or frames to share non-dedicated bandwidth. X.25 avoids delays for call setup. Frame Relay uses permanent virtual circuits (PVCs).
86. Which service takes information from multiple sources and allocates bandwidth on a single media?
* Time-division Multiplexing (TDM)
* Signaling System 7 (SS7)
* X.25
* Frame relay
Correct answer: A
87. Which three devices can be used to convert the user data from the DTE into a form acceptable to the WAN service’s facility?
* Modem
* CSU/DSU
* TA/NT1
* CO
* SS7

Correct answer: A, B & C
A modem, CSU/DSU (Channel Service Unit/Data Service Unit), or TA/NT1 (Terminal Adapter/Network Termination 1) can be used to convert the user data from the DTE into a form acceptable to the WAN service’s facility.
88. What is the juncture at which the CPE ends and the local loop portion of the service begins?
* Demarc
* CO
* Local loop

* Last-mile
Correct answer: A
The demarcation or demarc is the juncture at which the CPE ends and the local loop portion of the service begins. The CO (Central Office) is the nearest point of presence for the provider’s WAN service. The local loop or “last-mile” is the cabling that extends from the demarc into the WAN service provider’s central office.
89. You can access three forms of WAN services with Cisco routers. Select the three forms:
* Switched or relayed services
* Interface front end to IBM enterprise data center computers
* Using protocols that connect peer-to-peer devices like HDLC or PPP encapsulation.

* IPX/SPX
* NetBEUI
Correct answer: A, B & C
You can access three forms of WAN services with Cisco routers. Switched or relayed services include X.25, Frame Relay, and ISDN. An interface front end to IBM enterprise data center computers includes SDLC. And, you can access the services of WAN providers using protocols that connect peer devices such as HDLC and PPP encapsulation. IPX/SPX and NetBEUI are LAN protocols.
90. Select the fields for the Cisco HDLC protocol:
* Flag, Address, Control

* Flag, Address, Control, Protocol, LCP (Code, Identifier, Length, Data), FCS, Flag
* Flag, Address, Control, Data, FCS, Flag
* Flag, Address, Control, Proprietary, Data, FCS, Flag
Correct answer: D
The Cisco HDLC frame format is Flag, Address, Control Proprietary, Data, FCS, Flag. The PPP frame format is Flag, Address, Control, Protocol, LCP (Code, Identifier, Length, Data), FCS, Flag. The SDLC and LAPB format is Flag, Address, Control, Data, FCS, Flag.
85: Select the physical interfaces that PPP can be configured on a Cisco router:
* Asynchronous serial

* HSSI
* ISDN
* Synchronous serial
Correct answer: A, B, C & D
All four of them can carry PPP traffic. HSSI is High Speed Serial Interface.
91. Select the correct statements about PPP and SLIP for WAN communications?

* PPP uses its Network Control Programs (NCPs) component to encapsulate multiple protocols.
* PPP can only transport TCP/IP
* SLIP can only transport TCP/IP.
* SLIP uses its Network Control Programs (NCPs) component to encapsulate multiple protocols.
Correct answer: A & C

87a Which protocol for PPP LCP (Link Control Protocol) performs a challenge handshake?
* CHAP
* PAP
* UDP
* IPX
Correct answer: A

87b Which form of PPP error detection on Cisco routers monitors data dropped on a link?
* Quality
* Magic Number
* Error Monitor
* Droplink
Correct answer: A

The Quality protocol monitors data dropped on a link. Magic Number avoids frame looping.
92. Which protocol for PPP provides load balancing across multiple links?
* Multilink Protocol (MP)
* Quality
* Magic Number
* Stacker
* Predictor

Correct answer: A
93. As the system administrator, you type “ppp authentication chap pap secret”. Which authentication method is used first in setting up a session?
* secret
* PAP
* CHAP
* PPP/SLIP

Correct answer: C
94. Select the compression protocols for PPP?
* Stac
* Predictor
* Quality
* Magic Number

Correct answer: A & B
95. What are the three phases of PPP session establishment?
* Link establishment phase
* Authentication phase
* Network layer protocol phase

* Handshake phase
* Dial-in phase
Correct answer: A, B & C
96. What is the default IPX Ethernet encapsulation?
* SNAP

* Arpa
* 802.2
* Novell-Ether
* SAP
Correct answer: D
97. What must be true for two Routers running IGRP to communicate their routes?

* Same autonomous system number
* Connected using Ethernet only
* Use composite metric
D)Configured for PPP
Correct answer: A
98. The following is partial output from a routing table, identify the 2 numbers in the square brackets; ‘192.168.10.0 [100/1300] via 10.1.0.1, 00:00:23, Ethernet1'

* 100 = metric, 1300 = administrative distance
* 100 = administrative distance, 1300 = hop count
* 100 = administrative distance, 1300 = metric
* 100 = hop count, 1300 = metric
Correct answer: C
99. Identify 3 methods used to prevent routing loops?

* Split horizon
* Holddown timers
* Poison reverse
* SPF algorithm
* LSP’s
Correct answer: A B C
100. Which statement is true regarding full duplex?
* Allows for transmission and receiving of data simultaneously
* Only works in a multipoint configuration
* Does not affect the bandwidth
* Allows for transmission and receiving of data but not a the same time
Correct answer: A

Full duplex is just the opposite of half duplex. It handles traffic in both directions simultaneously.
101. Identify the switching method that receives the entire frame then dispatches it?
* Cut-through
* Receive and forward
* Store and forward
* Fast forward
Correct answer: C

Store and forward switching receives the entire frame before dispatching it.
98Identify the purpose of ICMP?
* Avoiding routing loops
* Send error and control messages
* Transporting routing updates
* Collision detection
Correct answer: B

ICMP is used to send error and control messages. Ping uses ICMP to carry the echo-request and echo-reply.
99Which statement is true regarding the user exec and privileged exec mode?
* The ‘?’ only works in Privileged exec
* They are identical
* They both require the enable password
* User exec is a subset of the privileged exec
Correct answer: D

The user exec mode is a subset of the privileged exec mode. Only a certain number of commands are available at the user exec mode.
102. Which OSI layer end to end communication, segmentation and re-assembly?
* Network
* Transport
* Physical
* Application
* Data-Link

* Presentation
Correct answer: B
Layer 4 the Transport layer performs this function.
103. What IP command would you use to test the entire IP stack?
* Stack-test
* Arp
* Telnet

* Ping
* Trace
Correct answer: C
Because Telnet is an application and it resides at the top of the stack it traverses down the stack and up the stack at the receiving end.
104. Identify the 2 hardware components used to manage and/or configure a router?
* Auxiliary port
* ROM port

* Management port
* Console port
Correct answer: A D
The 2 hardware ports used to configure the router are the console and auxiliary ports.
105. What is the default bandwidth of a serial connection?
* 1200 baud
* 1.544 Mbps (T1)

* 10 Mbps
* 96Kpbs
Correct answer: B
The default bandwidth is T1.
106. Identify 2 functions of IPX access-lists?
* Control SAP traffic
* Limit number of Novell servers on a network

* Limit number of workstations on a network
* Block IPX traffic
Correct answer: A D
IPX access lists are used to restrict IPX traffic and SAP broadcasts.
107. Identify 2 HDLC characteristics?
* Default serial encapsulation
* Open standard

* Supports Stacker compression
* Supports point-to-point and multipoint
Correct answer: A D
HDLC is the default serial encapsulation and supports point-to-point and multipoint. It is not an open standard and does not support compression.
108. Identify 3 IP applications?
* AURP
* ARP

* Telnet
* SMTP
* DNS
* RARP
Correct answer: C D E
ARP and AURP are not part the application layer of the TCP/IP stack. SMTP - Simple Mail Transfer Protocol, Telnet, DNS - Domain Name Services (name to IP resolution).
109. Identify 3 LAN technologies?
* FDDI
* HDLC
* HSSI
* X.25
* 802.3

* 802.5
Correct answer: A E F
The question is asking for 3 LAN technologies, HDLC, HSSI and X.25 are all WAN technologies.
110. Identify the 4 that are not LAN technologies?
* HDLC
* FDDI
* 802.5

* HSSI
* SDLC
* Frame Relay
Correct answer: A D E F
802.5 and FDDI are LAN technologies
111. Which OSI layer supports the communication component of an application?
* Data-Link

* Physical
* Session
* Presentation
* Application
* Transport
Correct answer: E

Layer 7 the Application layer performs this function.
112. Identify the length of an IPX address and it’s components?
* 80 bits, 48 bits network and 32 bits node
* 32 bits, 16 bits network and 16 bits node
* None of the above
* 80 bits, 32 bits network and 48 bits node
Correct answer: D

IPX address has 2 components; network and node. The network address is 32 bits and the node is 48 bits, total of 80 bits.
113. Identify the administrative distance and appropriate routing protocol?
* RIP = 255, IGRP = 100
* RIP = 100, IGRP = 120
* RIP = 1, IGRP = 0
* RIP = 120, IGRP = 100
Correct answer: D

The administrative distance for RIP is 120 and IGRP is 100. The lower the AD the better the routing information.
114. Which OSI layer incorporates the MAC address and the LLC?
* Data link
* Network
* Physcial
* Transport
Correct answer: ): A

Layer 2 the Data-Link layer incorporates the MAC and LLC sublayers
115. If configuring a Cisco router to connect to a non-Cisco router across a Frame Relay network, which encapsulation type would you select?
* Q933a
* ISDN
* IETF
* CISCO
* ANSI

Correct answer: C
There are two types of Frame Relay encapsulations; Cisco and IETF. IETF is required when connecting a Cisco to a non-Cisco router.
116. Identify the 2 items that TCP and UDP share in common?
* Both use port numbers to identify upper level applications
* Operate at the Network layer
* Both are Transport protocols
* Both are reliable communications

Correct answer: A C
TCP and UPD are both layer 4 Transport protocols and both use port number to identify upper level applications.
117. Identify 3 characteristics of IP RIP?
* Distance vector
* Administrative distance is 120
* Periodic updates every 60 seconds
* Uses a composite metric

* Can load balance
Correct answer: A B E
IP RIP is a distance vector protocol, it can load balance up to 4 equal cost paths and it’s rating of trustworthiness is 120.
118. Which of the following is a layer 2 device?
* Switch
* Router
* Repeater

* Hub
Correct answer: A
A Hub and Repeater are layer 1 devices. A Router is a layer 3 device.
119. Identify the definition of demarcation?
* Date in which the WAN service contract expires
* Cabling which extends from the WAN service provider to the customer
* Division of responsibility, where the CPE ends and the local loop begins

* Equipment which is located at the customer premises
Correct answer: C
Demarcation is the point in which responsibility changes hands.
120. Identify the 3 key features of the Cisco Discovery Protocol?
* Off by default
* Will allow for the discovery of layer 3 addresses on neighbor routers
* Verify connectivity

* Open standard
* Does not require any layer 3 protocols to be configured
Correct answer: B C E
CDP is used for 2 basic reasons; neighbor connectivity and layer 3 discovery if configured. It is proprietary and is on by default.
121. Identify the 3 characteristics of IPX RIP?
* Distance vector
* Does not support multiple paths

* 60 second updates
* Default encapsulation is SAP
* Uses ticks and hop count as a metric
Correct answer: A C E
IPX RIP is a distance vector routing protocol, it does support multiple paths, the default encapsulation is ‘novell-ether’, it uses tick count as a primary metric and hop count as a tie breaker and it sends it’s updates every 60 seconds.
122. Identify the access-list range for an extended IP access-list?
* 800 - 899

* 1 - 99
* 1000 - 1099
* 100 - 199
Correct answer: D
IP extended access-lists use the number range of 100-199.
123. Identify the X.25 addressing standard?
* X.121

* X.25a
* ITU-1
* Q933a
Correct answer: A
The X.25 layer 3 addressing standards is X.121.
124. Identify 3 features of IGRP?
* Composite metric

* New horizon
* Flash updates
* 60 periodic updates
* Poison reverse
Correct answer: A C E
IGRP uses a composite metric made up of bandwidth and delay by default, it updates every 60 seconds and will trigger an update if the topology changes.
125. Where is the backup configuration file stored?
* RAM
* ROM
* Console
* NVRAM
Correct answer: D

One location to store the backup configuration is NVRAM.
126. Identify the correct pair of Novell Ethernet encapsulation and Cisco terminology?
* Ethernet II, Snap
* Ethernet 802.3, Novell-Ether
* Ethernet SNAP, Arpa
* Ethernet 802.2, Snap
Correct answer: B

The default IPX LAN encapsulation is Novell-Ether which is 802.3
127. Identify 3 characteristics regarding IP access-lists?
* Can be configured as a standard access-list
* Can be run from another router running IP
* Can be configured as a named access-list
* Are the same as IPX access-lists
* Can be configured as an extended access-list

Correct answer: A C E
There are 3 types of IP access-lists; standard, extended and named. Named access-lists can be either standard or extended depending on how they are configured.
128. Identify 3 ways in which a router can be configured?
* TFTP
* Nvram
* Ping
* Console

* Trace
Correct answer: A B D
Changes to the configuration can be entered via the console, a config stored in NVRAM or on a TFTP server. Trace and ping are tools to verify connectivity.
129. A traffic light is an example of what type of mechanism?
* Collision detection
* Flow control
* Sequence numbering

* Network management
Correct answer: B
A Traffic light is an example of flow control.
130. Windowing is a type of?
* Negative acknowledgement
* Address resolution
* Layer transition mechanism

* Flow control
Correct answer: D
Windowing allow the sender and receiver to dictate how much information that can be received prior to an acknowledgement. It is a form of flow control.
131. Identify the 2 types of access-list filters that control SAP traffic?
* Novell-ether
* Arpa
* Input-sap-filter

* Round-robin
* Output-sap-filter
Correct answer: C E
SAP’s can be blocked by 2 methods; inbound and outbound.
132. Identify the 3 guidelines for routers in the same autonomous system?
* Must be configured for IGRP or RIP
* Interconnected

* Assigned the same autonomous system number
* Configured for the same routing protocol
* Must be same model of router
Correct answer: B C D
Autonomous system must be interconnected, assigned the same AS # and configured with the same routing protocol.
133. Identify the hardware component used to store buffers, tables, running-configuration etc?
* NVRAM

* ROM
* RAM
* Flash
Correct answer: C
RAM is the dynamic memory area. ROM contains the boot strap code, NVRAM contains the startup-config and Flash contains the IOS.
134. Identify 3 UDP characteristics?
* Reliable communication protocol

* Applications that use UDP must incorporate reliability
* Connection-less oriented
* Incorporates no handshaking
Correct answer: B C D
UPD is a layer 4 Transport protocol. It is connection-less because it does establish a connection therefore the 3 step handshake is not needed, it does NOT implement any flow control or acknowledgments. Any application that uses UDP must incorporate any needed reliability.
135. Identify the IPX standard access-list number range?
* 600 - 699

* 1000 - 1099
* 1 - 99
* 100 - 199
* 800 - 899
Correct answer: E
IPX standard access-list range is 800-899.
136. Which OSI layer provides best effort end to end packet delivery?
* Data-Link
* Presentation
* Network
* Transport
* Physical

* Application
Correct answer: C
Layer 3 the Network layer performs this function.
137. Identify the 2 methods to modify the routers boot sequence?
* Setup program
* Boot system commands
* RXBoot

* Config-register
Correct answer: B D
‘Boot system’ command the ‘config-register’ are used to manipulate the boot sequence.
138. Identify the 3 pieces of hardware you would not install to prevent broadcasts?
* Switch
* Repeater
* Bridge

* Router
Correct answer: A B C
Router are implemented not only to break up networks into smaller segments but they are used to block broadcasts.
139. Identify 2 features of PPP PAP authentication?
* Username and password is sent in clear text
* Authentication messages are sent periodically during the connection
* More secure than CHAP

* Remote node is control of authentication process
Correct answer: A D
PPP PAP authentication sends the username and passwords in clear text and the remote node initiates the authentication process.
140. Identify the switching method that examines the destination MAC address as the frame is being received then begins forwarding the frame prior to receiving the entire frame?
* Fragment-free
* Store and Forward
* Cut-through

* Fast forward
Correct answer: C
Cut through examines the destination MAC address and begins forwarding the frame prior to receiving the entire frame.
141. Identify 1 characteristic of RARP?
* IP to MAC address translation
* Connectionless delivery of packets
* Can be used to initiate remote O/S load sequence

* Generates error and control messages
Correct answer: C
Reverse Address Resolution Protocol is used to obtain a layer 3 address if the MAC address is known which then facilitates the loading of the O/S.
142. Identify the protocol to test connectivity without configuring any layer 3 protocols?
* TCP
* Ping
* IP

* CDP
* Telnet
Correct answer: D
CDP can be used to verify connectivity prior to any layer 3 protocols being configured.
143. LMI operates between the Frame Switch and what other device?
* CPE device
* Another Frame Switch

* X.25 switch
* Novell File Server
Correct answer: A
LMI stands for local management interface. It operates between the Frame Relay switch and the customer equipment.
144. Identify IPX SAP and it’s purpose?
* Sonet Access Pipe - interface to Sonet ring
* Service Advertising Protocol - advertise services

* Server Appletalk Protocol - appletalk directory services
* Service Access Point - identify upper layer protocols
Correct answer: B
SAP is an Novell protocol to advertise services.
145. Identify the default values that make up IGRP’s composite metric?
* Bandwidth
* Load

* Reliability
* MTU
* Delay
Correct answer: A E
IGRP can be configured to use all 5 within it’s metric. By default it uses bandwidth and delay.
146. Identify the default serial encapsulation?
* ISDN

* HDLC
* SDLC
* Frame Relay
* PPP
Correct answer: B
The default serial encapsulation is HDLC.
147. Identify the purpose of ARP?
* Avoiding routing loops
* Determining a workstation’s IP address
* Sending a directed broadcast
* Determining a workstation’s MAC address
Correct answer: D

ARP is used to find a devices MAC address given an IP address.
148. What is the purpose of the DLCI?
* Identifies the remote routers
* Contained with a 802.2 frame for routing purposes
* Used with PPP during authentication
* Identifies the PVC in a Frame Relay network
Correct answer: D

DLCI stands for Data Link Connection Identifier. It identifies the local PVC.
149. Identify 3 characteristics of the Network layer (OSI layer 3)?
* Connection oriented
* Path determination
* Supports multiplexing
* Manages sessions
* Packet forwarding

Correct answer: B C E
The network layer is responsible for routing which entails learning the paths, selecting the best path and forwarding the packet. Because it services multiple layer 4 protocols it multiplexes.
150. Identify 3 characteristics of switches?
* Increase available bandwidth
* Decrease broadcast traffic
* Support full duplex in a multipoint topology
* Make forwarding decision using MAC address

* Create collision domains
Correct answer: A D E
Switches operate at layer 2. They increase bandwidth by reducing the number of devices sharing the media. They isolate collisions. Like a bridge they forward traffic based upon layer 2 address/ MAC address.
151. Which OSI layer handles physical address, network topology?
* Presentation
* Physical
* Transport

* Application
* Data-Link
* Network
Correct answer: E
Layer 2 the Data-Link layer performs this function.
152. Identify 2 reasons for disabling CDP?
* If the router is not configured for RIP

* Save bandwidth by eliminating overhead
* If the router is configured for Appletalk
* When connected to a non-Cisco router
Correct answer: B D
CDP can be disabled here are a couple of reasons. Connecting a Cisco router to a non-Cisco router. Don’t want to exchange CDP information to save bandwidth.
153. Identify 3 characteristics of ISDN?
* Transports voice and data

* Transports voice only
* Support both BRI and PRI
* Runs over existing phone lines
* Same as X.25
Correct answer: A C D
ISDN supports voice, data, and video. It runs over existing phone lines and supports 128K (BRI) and T1 (PRI).
154. Identify the 3 characteristics of IGRP?
* Uses hop count as a metric
* Supports multiple unequal paths
* Administrative distance is 100
* Configured with an Autonomous system number
* Link state

Correct answer: B C D
IGRP is a distance vector routing protocol, it’s degree of trustworthiness is 100, it can support up to 6 un-equal paths and must be configured with an autonomous system number.
155. Identify 2 features of PPP CHAP authentication?
* Username and password is sent in clear text
* Authentication messages are sent periodically during the connection
* Less secure then PAP
* Local router ‘challenges’ the remote router

Correct answer: B D
PPP CHAP authentication message are sent periodically during the connection by challenging the other end of the connection.
It is more secure than PAP and passwords and username are encrypted.
156. Identify the default IPX serial encapsulation?
* Novell-Ether
* SDLC
* SNAP

* HDLC
Correct answer: D
The default IPX serial encapsulation is HDLC.
157. Identify the hardware component that stores the backup configuration?
* RAM
* NVRAM
* Flash

* ROM
Correct answer: B
NVRAM contains the backup config. RAM is the dynamic memory area, ROM contains the boot strap code and Flash contains the IOS.
158. Identify the extended IP access-list number range?
* 600 - 699
* 1 - 99
* 900 - 999

* 100 - 199
Correct answer: D
The extended IP access-list range is 100-199.
159. Identify 3 Fast Ethernet technologies?
* 100 Base FastEther
* 100 Base FX
* 100 Base T4

* 100 Base TX
Correct answer: B C D
160. BaseFastEther is false. 100 Base FX, TX and T4 are all valid.
161. Identify the OSI layer which is responsible for end-to-end connections?
* Network
* Transport

* Session
* Data link
* TCP
Correct answer: B
Layer 4 is the Transport layer and is responsible for end-to-end connections.
162. Identify the 2 characteristics regarding MAC addresses?
* Contains a network portion and host portion

* Always assigned by System Administrator
* 48 bits long
* Contains a vendor code and serial number
Correct answer: C D
MAC addresses are assigned by the vendor. Each MAC address is 48 bits long and made up of 24 bits vendor code and 24 bits serial number.
163. Identify the number range for IPX SAP filters?
* 900 - 999

* 1000 - 1099
* 800 -899
* 100 - 199
Correct answer: B
The IPX SAP filtering range is 1000-1099.
164. What is the purpose of ARP?
* IP to host name resolution

* Host name to IP address resolution
* Mac to IP address resolution
* IP to Mac address resolution
Correct answer: D
Address Resolution Protocol resolves the MAC address if the IP address is known. It is a layer 3 protocol.
165. Which OSI layer establishes, maintains and terminates sessions between hosts?
* Application

* Physical
* Data-Link
* Presentation
* Network
* Session
Correct answer: F

Layer 5 the Session layer performs this function.
166. Which statement is true regarding Administrative distance?
* It is a metric
* Number of hops between two routers
* Trustworthiness of the routing information
* RIP Administrative distance is 100
Correct answer: C

Administrative distance is rating of trustworthiness of the routing information. The lower the AD the better the information.
167. Identify the purpose of the Ping command?
* Share routing information with a neighbor router
* Transmit user data when buffers are full
* Test connectivity at layer 3
* Test entire protocol stack
Correct answer: C

The ping command tests layer 3 connectivity.
168. Identify the order of the 5 step encapsulation?
1. Create the segment
2. Convert the frame to bits
3. Create the packet
4. Create the frame
5. User creates the data
* 1,2,4,2,5

* 2,1,3,4,5
* 5,1,3,4,2
* 5,3,4,1,2
Correct answer: C
Cisco 5 step encapsulation.
1) User creates Data
2) Data is converted into a segment at layer 4

3) The segment is converted to packet at layer 3
4) The packet it converted into a frame at layer 2
5) The frame is converted into bits at layer 1
169. The Cisco IOS is stored where?
* ROM
* CD
* Flash

* NVRAM
Correct answer: C
By default the Cisco IOS is stored in flash.
170. Sequence and acknowledgement numbers are used for?
* Layer transitioning
* Flow control
* Port number addressing

* Reliability
Correct answer: D
TCP uses sequence numbers and acknowledgements to implement reliability.
171. Identify IPX GNS and it’s purpose?
* Go Network Server - sends a print job to a network server
* Get Nearest Server - locate the nearest server
* Guaranteed Network Services - allocates resources to users

* Get Notes Server - locates Domino Server
Correct answer: B
GNS stands for Get Nearest Server, initiated by a workstation.
172. Identify the true statement regarding subnetting?
* Allows for more host address
* Borrow bits from the network portion of the address
* Allows for unlimited number of networks

* Borrow bits from the host portion of the address
Correct answer: D
Subnetting involves borrowing bits for the host portion of the address to be used to subnet addressing.
173. Inverse ARP serves what purpose?
* Method for a local router to introduce itself to the remote end of the connection
* Broadcast a routing table update
* Identify MAC addresses if the IP address is known

* Sent every 10 seconds used to verify the Frame Switch is still active
Correct answer: A
Inverse ARP operates in a Frame Relay network so the two end points can identify themselves to each other.
174. Identify 3 characteristics of a MAC address?
* Burned into the NIC
* 48 bits long
* Length is 32 bits

* Used to deliver the frame to the end device
* Contains a network portion and a host portion
Correct answer: A B D
The MAC address is 48 bits long not 32. It does NOT contain a network and host portion with the address. It is used to deliver the frame to the destination device.
175. Identify 3 IP routing protocols?
* RIP
* AURP

* OSPF
* IGRP
* ARP
* ICMP
Correct answer: A C D
AURP and ICMP are not routing protocols.
176. Identify the type of routing protocol that exchanges entire routing tables at regular intervals?
* Link state
* Interior gateway protocols
* Appletalk routing
* Distance vector
Correct answer: D

Distance Vector routing protocols exchange entire routing tables with it’s neighbors.

XML Recent Placement Interview Question Papers Solved - 1

noreply@blogger.com (hita) — Thu, 20 Mar 2008 11:11:00 +0000

XML

Explain the concept of data island?
How to use XML DOM model on client side using JavaScript.
What are the ways to create a tree view control using XML, XSL & JavaScript?
Questions on XPathNavigator, and the other classes in System.XML Namespace?
What is Use of Template in XSL?
What is ?Well Formed XML? and ?Valid XML?
How you will do SubString in XSL
Can we do sorting in XSL ? how do you deal sorting columns dynamically in XML.
What is ?Async? property of XML Means ?
What is XPath Query ?
Difference Between Element and Node.
What is CDATA Section.
DOM & SAX parsers explanation and difference
What is GetElementbyname method will do?
What is selectnode method will give?
What is valid xml document? What a well formed xml document?
What is the Difference between XmlDocument and XmlDataDocument?
Explain what a DiffGram is, and a good use for one?
A DiffGram is an XML format that is used to identify current and original versions of data elements. When sending and retrieving a DataSet from an XML Web service, the DiffGram format is implicitly used.
The DataSet uses the DiffGram format to load and persist its contents, and to serialize its contents for transport across a network connection. When a DataSet is written as a DiffGram, it populates the DiffGram with all the necessary information to accurately recreate the contents, though not the schema, of the DataSet, including column values from both the Original and Current row versions, row error information, and row order.
DiffGram Format
The DiffGram format is divided into three sections: the current data, the original (or "before") data, and an errors section, as shown in the following example.

xmlns:msdata="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:xml-msdata"
xmlns:diffgr="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:xml-diffgram-v1"
xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema">

The DiffGram format consists of the following blocks of data:
<DataInstance>
The name of this element, DataInstance, is used for explanation purposes in this documentation. A DataInstance element represents a DataSet or a row of a DataTable. Instead of DataInstance, the element would contain the name of the DataSet or DataTable. This block of the DiffGram format contains the current data, whether it has been modified or not. An element, or row, that has been modified is identified with the diffgr:hasChanges annotation.

This block of the DiffGram format contains the original version of a row. Elements in this block are matched to elements in the DataInstance block using the diffgr:id annotation.

This block of the DiffGram format contains error information for a particular row in the DataInstance block. Elements in this block are matched to elements in the DataInstance block using the diffgr:id annotation.
If I replace my Sqlserver with XML files and how about handling the same?
Write syntax to serialize class using XML Serializer?

Microprocessor Technologies Electronics Interview Questions Recent 2008 -3

noreply@blogger.com (hita) — Thu, 20 Mar 2008 11:10:00 +0000

x86 interview questions

What is a Microprocessor? - Microprocessor is a program-controlled device, which fetches the instructions from memory, decodes and executes the instructions. Most Micro Processor are single- chip devices.
Give examples for 8 / 16 / 32 bit Microprocessor? - 8-bit Processor - 8085 / Z80 / 6800; 16-bit Processor - 8086 / 68000 / Z8000; 32-bit Processor - 80386 / 80486.
Why 8085 processor is called an 8 bit processor? - Because 8085 processor has 8 bit ALU (Arithmetic Logic Review). Similarly 8086 processor has 16 bit ALU.
What is 1st / 2nd / 3rd / 4th generation processor? - The processor made of PMOS / NMOS / HMOS / HCMOS technology is called 1st / 2nd / 3rd / 4th generation processor, and it is made up of 4 / 8 / 16 / 32 bits.
Define HCMOS? - High-density n- type Complimentary Metal Oxide Silicon field effect transistor.
What does microprocessor speed depend on? - The processing speed depends on DATA BUS WIDTH.
Is the address bus unidirectional? - The address bus is unidirectional because the address information is always given by the Micro Processor to address a memory location of an input / output devices.
Is the data bus is Bi-directional? - The data bus is Bi-directional because the same bus is used for transfer of data between Micro Processor and memory or input / output devices in both the direction.
What is the disadvantage of microprocessor? - It has limitations on the size of data. Most Microprocessor does not support floating-point operations.
What is the difference between microprocessor and microcontroller? - In Microprocessor more op-codes, few bit handling instructions. But in Microcontroller: fewer op-codes, more bit handling Instructions, and also it is defined as a device that includes micro processor, memory, & input / output signal lines on a single chip.
What is meant by LATCH? - Latch is a D- type flip-flop used as a temporary storage device controlled by a timing signal, which can store 0 or 1. The primary function of a Latch is data storage. It is used in output devices such as LED, to hold the data for display.
Why does microprocessor contain ROM chips? - Microprocessor contain ROM chip because it contain instructions to execute data.
What is the difference between primary & secondary storage device? - In primary storage device the storage capacity is limited. It has a volatile memory. In secondary storage device the storage capacity is larger. It is a nonvolatile memory. Primary devices are: RAM / ROM. Secondary devices are: Floppy disc / Hard disk.
Difference between static and dynamic RAM? - Static RAM: No refreshing, 6 to 8 MOS transistors are required to form one memory cell, Information stored as voltage level in a flip flop. Dynamic RAM: Refreshed periodically, 3 to 4 transistors are required to form one memory cell, Information is stored as a charge in the gate to substrate capacitance.
What is interrupt? - Interrupt is a signal send by external device to the processor so as to request the processor to perform a particular work.
What is cache memory? - Cache memory is a small high-speed memory. It is used for temporary storage of data & information between the main memory and the CPU (center processing unit). The cache memory is only in RAM.
What is called ?Scratch pad of computer?? - Cache Memory is scratch pad of computer.
Which transistor is used in each cell of EPROM? - Floating ?gate Avalanche Injection MOS (FAMOS) transistor is used in each cell of EPROM.
Differentiate between RAM and ROM? - RAM: Read / Write memory, High Speed, Volatile Memory. ROM: Read only memory, Low Speed, Non Voliate Memory.
What is a compiler? - Compiler is used to translate the high-level language program into machine code at a time. It doesn?t require special instruction to store in a memory, it stores automatically. The Execution time is less compared to Interpreter.
Which processor structure is pipelined? - All x86 processors have pipelined structure.
What is flag? - Flag is a flip-flop used to store the information about the status of a processor and the status of the instruction executed most recently
What is stack? - Stack is a portion of RAM used for saving the content of Program Counter and general purpose registers.
Can ROM be used as stack? - ROM cannot be used as stack because it is not possible to write to ROM.
What is NV-RAM? - Nonvolatile Read Write Memory, also called Flash memory. It is also know as shadow RAM.

8086 Latest Interview 2008 Questions - 2

noreply@blogger.com (hita) — Thu, 20 Mar 2008 11:09:00 +0000

8086 interview questions

What are the flags in 8086? - In 8086 Carry flag, Parity flag, Auxiliary carry flag, Zero flag, Overflow flag, Trace flag, Interrupt flag, Direction flag, and Sign flag.
What are the various interrupts in 8086? - Maskable interrupts, Non-Maskable interrupts.
What is meant by Maskable interrupts? - An interrupt that can be turned off by the programmer is known as Maskable interrupt.
What is Non-Maskable interrupts? - An interrupt which can be never be turned off (ie.disabled) is known as Non-Maskable interrupt.
Which interrupts are generally used for critical events? - Non-Maskable interrupts are used in critical events. Such as Power failure, Emergency, Shut off etc.,
Give examples for Maskable interrupts? - RST 7.5, RST6.5, RST5.5 are Maskable interrupts
Give example for Non-Maskable interrupts? - Trap is known as Non-Maskable interrupts, which is used in emergency condition.
What is the Maximum clock frequency in 8086? - 5 Mhz is the Maximum clock frequency in 8086.
What are the various segment registers in 8086? - Code, Data, Stack, Extra Segment registers in 8086.
Which Stack is used in 8086? - FIFO (First In First Out) stack is used in 8086.In this type of Stack the first stored information is retrieved first.
What are the address lines for the software interrupts? -

RST 0
0000 H
RST1
0008 H
RST2
0010 H
RST3
0018 H
RST4
0020 H
RST5
0028 H
RST6
0030 H
RST7
0038 H
What is SIM and RIM instructions? - SIM is Set Interrupt Mask. Used to mask the hardware interrupts. RIM is Read Interrupt Mask. Used to check whether the interrupt is Masked or not.
Which is the tool used to connect the user and the computer? - Interpreter is the tool used to connect the user and the tool.
What is the position of the Stack Pointer after the PUSH instruction? - The address line is 02 less than the earlier value.
What is the position of the Stack Pointer after the POP instruction? - The address line is 02 greater than the earlier value.
Logic calculations are done in which type of registers? - Accumulator is the register in which Arithmetic and Logic calculations are done.
What are the different functional units in 8086? - Bus Interface Unit and Execution unit, are the two different functional units in 8086.
Give examples for Micro controller? - Z80, Intel MSC51 &96, Motorola are the best examples of Microcontroller.
What is meant by cross-compiler? - A program runs on one machine and executes on another is called as cross-compiler.
What are the address lines for the hardware interrupts? -

RST 7.5
003C H
RST 6.5
0034 H
RST 5.5
002C H
TRAP
0024 H
Which Segment is used to store interrupt and subroutine return address registers? - Stack Segment in segment register is used to store interrupt and subroutine return address registers.
Which Flags can be set or reset by the programmer and also used to control the operation of the processor? - Trace Flag, Interrupt Flag, Direction Flag.
What does EU do? - Execution Unit receives program instruction codes and data from BIU, executes these instructions and store the result in general registers.
Which microprocessor accepts the program written for 8086 without any changes? - 8088 is that processor.
What is the difference between 8086 and 8088? - The BIU in 8088 is 8-bit data bus & 16- bit in 8086.Instruction queue is 4 byte long in 8088and 6 byte in 8086.

8085 Microprocessor 4 8 16 32 bit interview Questions - 1

noreply@blogger.com (hita) — Thu, 20 Mar 2008 11:06:00 +0000

8085 microprocessor questions

What are the various registers in 8085? - Accumulator register, Temporary register, Instruction register, Stack Pointer, Program Counter are the various registers in 8085 .
In 8085 name the 16 bit registers? - Stack pointer and Program counter all have 16 bits.
What are the various flags used in 8085? - Sign flag, Zero flag, Auxillary flag, Parity flag, Carry flag.
What is Stack Pointer? - Stack pointer is a special purpose 16-bit register in the Microprocessor, which holds the address of the top of the stack.
What is Program counter? - Program counter holds the address of either the first byte of the next instruction to be fetched for execution or the address of the next byte of a multi byte instruction, which has not been completely fetched. In both the cases it gets incremented automatically one by one as the instruction bytes get fetched. Also Program register keeps the address of the next instruction.
Which Stack is used in 8085? - LIFO (Last In First Out) stack is used in 8085.In this type of Stack the last stored information can be retrieved first.
What happens when HLT instruction is executed in processor? - The Micro Processor enters into Halt-State and the buses are tri-stated.
What is meant by a bus? - A bus is a group of conducting lines that carriers data, address, & control signals.
What is Tri-state logic? - Three Logic Levels are used and they are High, Low, High impedance state. The high and low are normal logic levels & high impedance state is electrical open circuit conditions. Tri-state logic has a third line called enable line.
Give an example of one address microprocessor? - 8085 is a one address microprocessor.
In what way interrupts are classified in 8085? - In 8085 the interrupts are classified as Hardware and Software interrupts.
What are Hardware interrupts? - TRAP, RST7.5, RST6.5, RST5.5, INTR.
What are Software interrupts? - RST0, RST1, RST2, RST3, RST4, RST5, RST6, RST7.
Which interrupt has the highest priority? - TRAP has the highest priority.
Name 5 different addressing modes? - Immediate, Direct, Register, Register indirect, Implied addressing modes.
How many interrupts are there in 8085? - There are 12 interrupts in 8085.
What is clock frequency for 8085? - 3 MHz is the maximum clock frequency for 8085.
What is the RST for the TRAP? - RST 4.5 is called as TRAP.
In 8085 which is called as High order / Low order Register? - Flag is called as Low order register & Accumulator is called as High order Register.
What are input & output devices? - Keyboards, Floppy disk are the examples of input devices. Printer, LED / LCD display, CRT Monitor are the examples of output devices.
Can an RC circuit be used as clock source for 8085? - Yes, it can be used, if an accurate clock frequency is not required. Also, the component cost is low compared to LC or Crystal.
Why crystal is a preferred clock source? - Because of high stability, large Q (Quality Factor) & the frequency that doesn?t drift with aging. Crystal is used as a clock source most of the times.
Which interrupt is not level-sensitive in 8085? - RST 7.5 is a raising edge-triggering interrupt.
What does Quality factor mean? - The Quality factor is also defined, as Q. So it is a number, which reflects the lossness of a circuit. Higher the Q, the lower are the losses.
What are level-triggering interrupt? - RST 6.5 & RST 5.5 are level-triggering interrupts.

VB Recent IT MNCs Campus Interview Important Questions - 4

noreply@blogger.com (hita) — Thu, 20 Mar 2008 11:05:00 +0000

VB 6, COM, DCOM, Microsoft platform interview questions

3 main differences between flexgrid control and dbgrid control
ActiveX and Types of ActiveX Components in VB
Advantage of ActiveX Dll over ActiveX Exe
Advantages of disconnected recordsets
Benefit of wrapping database calls into MTS transactions
Benefits of using MTS
Can database schema be changed with DAO, RDO or ADO?
Can you create a tabletype of recordset in Jet-connected ODBC database engine?
Constructors and destructors
Controls which do not have events
Default property of datacontrol
Define the scope of Public, Private, Friend procedures?
Describe Database Connection pooling relative to MTS
Describe: In of Process vs. Out of Process component. Which is faster?
Difference between a function and a subroutine, Dynaset and Snapshot, early and late binding, image and picture controls, linked object and embedded Object,listbox and combo box,Listindex and Tab index,modal and moduless window, Object and Class, query unload and unload in form, declaration and instantiation of an object?
Draw and explain Sequence Model of DAO
How can objects on different threads communicate with one another?
How can you force new objects to be created on new threads?
How does a DCOM component know where to instantiate itself?
How do I register a component?
How do I set a shortcut key for label?
What kind of components can be used as DCOM servers?
Name of the control used to call a Windows application
Name the four different cursor and locking types in ADO and describe them briefly
Need of zorder method, no of controls in form, Property used to add a menus at runtime, Property used to count number of items in a combobox,resize a label control according to your caption.
Return value of callback function, The need of tabindex property
Thread pool and management of threads within a thread pool
To set the command button for ESC, Which property needs to be changed?
Type Library and what is it’s purpose?
Types of system controls, container objects, combo box
Under the ADO Command Object, what collection is responsible for input to stored procedures?
What are the ADO objects? Explain them.
What are the different compatibility types when we create a COM component?
What do ByVal and ByRef mean and which is the default?
What does Option Explicit refer to?
What does the Implements statement do?
What is OLE and DDE? Explain.
What is the difference between Msgbox Statement and MsgboxQ function?
What keyword is associated with raising system level events in VB?
What methods are called from the ObjectContext object to inform MTS that the transaction was successful or unsuccessful?
What types of data access have you used.
What was introduced to Visual Basic to allow the use of Callback Functions?
Which controls can not be placed in MDI?
Which controls have refresh method, clear method
Which Property is used to compress a image in image control?
Which property of menu cannot be set at run time?
Which property of textbox cannot be changed at runtime?
What is the maximum size of a textbox?
Which tool is used to configure the port range and protocols for DCOM communications?

Visual Basic Latest 2008 Interview Questions 3

noreply@blogger.com (hita) — Thu, 20 Mar 2008 11:04:00 +0000

Visual Basic

How do you register a component? Expected answer: Compiling the component, running REGSVR32 MyDLL.dll
Name and explain the different compatibility types when creating a COM component. Expected answer: No Compatibility ? New GUID created, references from other components will not workProject Compatibility ? Default for a new component Binary Compatibility ? GUID does not change, references from other components will work
Why iss it important to use source control software for source code? Expected answer: Modification history.Code ownership: Multiple people can not modify the same code at the same time.
What two methods are called from the ObjectContext object to inform MTS that the transaction was successful or unsuccessful? Expected answer: SetComplete and SetAbort.
What is the tool used to configure the port range and protocols for DCOM communications? Expected answer: DCOMCONFIG.EXE
What does Option Explicit refer to? Expected answer: All variables must be declared before use. Their type is not required.
What are the different ways to Declare and Instantiate an object in Visual Basic 6? Expected answer: Dim obj as OBJ.CLASS with eitherSet obj = New OBJ.CLASS orSet obj = CreateObject(?OBJ.CLASS?) orSet obj = GetObject( ,? OBJ.CLASS?)orDim obj as New OBJ.CLASS
Name the four different cursor types in ADO and describe them briefly. Expected answer: The cursor types are listed from least to most resource intensive.Forward Only ? Fastest, can only move forward in recordset Static ? Can move to any record in the recordset. Data is static and never changes.KeySet ? Changes are detectable, records that are deleted by other users are unavailable, and records created by other users are not detectedDynamic ? All changes are visible.
Name the four different locking type in ADO and describe them briefly. Expected answer: LockPessimistic ? Locks the row once after any edits occur.LockOptimistic ? Locks the row only when Update is called.LockBatchOptimistic ? Allows Batch Updates.LockReadOnly ? Read only. Can not alter the data.
Describe Database Connection pooling (relative to MTS ) Expected answer: This allows MTS to reuse database connections. Database connections are put to ?sleep? as opposed to being created and destroyed and are activated upon request.
What are the ADO objects? Explain them. Provide a scenario using three of them to return data from a database. Expected answer: Connection ? Connects to a data source; contains the Errors collectionCommand ? Executes commands to the data source. Is the only object that can accept parameters for a stored procedure.Recordset ? The set of data returned from the database.Scenario: There are many possibilities. The most likely is as follows:Dim conn As ADODB.ConnectionDim rs As ADODB.RecordsetDim Cmd As ADODB.Commandconn.ConnectionString = ?CONNECTION STRING?conn.OpenSet Cmd.ActiveConnection = connCmd.CommandText = ?SQL STATEMENT?Set rs = Cmd.ExecuteSet rs.ActiveConnection = Nothingconn.Close
Under the ADO Command Object, what collection is responsible for input to stored procedures? Expected answer: The Parameters collection.
What are some benefits of using MTS? Expected answer: Database Pooling, Transactional operations, Deployment, Security, Remote Execution.
What is the benefit of wrapping database calls into MTS transactions? Expected answer: If database calls are made within the context of a transaction, aborting the transaction will undo and changes that occur within that transaction. This removes the possibility of stranded, or partial data.
Describe and In Process vs. Out of Process component. Which is faster? Expected answer:An in-process component is implemented as a DLL, and runs in the same process space as its client app, enabling the most efficient communication between client and component.Each client app that uses the component starts a new instance of it.An out of process component is implemented as an EXE, and unlike a dll, runs in its own process space. As a result, exe’s are slower then dll’s because communications between client and component must be marshalled across process boundaries. A single instance of an out of process component can service many clients.
What are the main components of the ADO object model? How are they used? Expected answer:Connection: Used to make a connection between your app and an external data source, ie, sql server.Command: Used to build queries, including user-specific parameters, to access records from a data source (which are returned in a Recordset)Recordset:Used to access records returned from an SQL query. With a recordset, you can navigate returned records. You can also add, modify or delete records.

Visual Basic Latest Interview Questions 2008 - 2

noreply@blogger.com (hita) — Thu, 20 Mar 2008 11:03:00 +0000

Visual Basic interview questions

How do you center a form?
Can I send keystrokes to a DOS application?
Convert an RGB value to a long, or a long to RGB.
Implement smooth scrolling for either text, graphics or controls across a form.
Implement some quick and easy encryption (can be something primitive).
4 different types of sorts: advantages and disadvantages.
Compute CRC32 checksum, write a quick piece of code that accepts the packet of data and returns the CRC.
How do you use the Mouse OFF event?
How do I call Windows Help files from a VB program?
How do I create a textbox that lets you insert tabs?
How do I make text box that displays asterisks when the user types in data such as password?
How do I create multi-column combo box?
How do I make a menu popup from a CommandButton?
How to create menus at run time in VB?
Write a generic error handling routine.
How to copy text to the Windows clipboard and from it.
How can I call a Command button without clicking it?
Write a simple app with Encrypt and Decrypt buttons and Textbox where the user can enter text for encryption and decryption.
3 main differences between flexgrid control and dbgrid control
ActiveX and Types of ActiveX Components in VB
Advantage of ActiveX Dll over ActiveX Exe .
Advantages of disconnected recordsets . Benefit of wrapping database calls into MTS transactions 6. Benefits of using 23 MTS
Can database schema be changed with DAO, RDO or ADO?
Can you create a tabletype of recordset in Jet-connected ODBC database engine?
Constructors and destructors
Controls which do not have events
Default property of datacontrol
Define the scope of Public, Private, Friend procedures?
Describe Database Connection pooling relative to MTS
Describe: In of Process vs. Out of Process component. Which is faster?
Difference between a function and a subroutine, Dynaset and Snapshot, early and late binding, image and picture controls, linked object and embedded Object,listbox and combo box,Listindex and Tab index,modal and moduless window, Object and Class, query unload and unload in form, declaration and instantiation of an object?
Draw and explain Sequence Model of DAO
How can objects on different threads communicate with one another?
How can you force new objects to be created on new threads?
How does a DCOM component know where to instantiate itself?
How do I register a component?
How do I set a shortcut key for label?
What kind of components can be used as DCOM servers?
Name of the control used to call a Windows application
Name the four different cursor and locking types in ADO and describe them briefly
Need of zorder method, no of controls in form, Property used to add a menus at runtime, Property used to count number of items in a combobox,resize a label control according to your caption.
Return value of callback function, The need of tabindex property
Thread pool and management of threads within a thread pool
To set the command button for ESC, Which property needs to be changed?
Type Library and what is it?s purpose?
Types of system controls, container objects, combo box
Under the ADO Command Object, what collection is responsible for input to stored procedures?
What are the ADO objects? Explain them.
What are the different compatibility types when we create a COM component?
What do ByVal and ByRef mean and which is the default?
What does Option Explicit refer to? 36. What does the Implements statement do?
What is OLE and DDE? Explain.
What is the difference between Msgbox Statement and MsgboxQ function?
What keyword is associated with raising system level events in VB?
What methods are called from the ObjectContext object to inform MTS that the transaction was successful or unsuccessful?
What types of data access have you used.
What was introduced to Visual Basic to allow the use of Callback Functions?
Which controls can not be placed in MDI?
Which controls have refresh method, clear method
Which Property is used to compress a image in image control?
Which property of menu cannot be set at run time?
Which property of textbox cannot be changed at runtime?
What is the maximum size of a textbox?
Which tool is used to configure the port range and protocols for DCOM communications?

VB Basic Interview Questions 1

noreply@blogger.com (hita) — Thu, 20 Mar 2008 11:01:00 +0000

Basic VB interview questions

How do you center a form?
Can I send keystrokes to a DOS application?
Convert an RGB value to a long, or a long to RGB.
Implement smooth scrolling for either text, graphics or controls across a form.
Implement some quick and easy encryption (can be something primitive).
4 different types of sorts: advantages and disadvantages.
Compute CRC32 checksum, write a quick piece of code that accepts the packet of data and returns the CRC.
How do you use the Mouse OFF event?
How do I call Windows Help files from a VB program?
How do I create a textbox that lets you insert tabs?
How do I make text box that displays asterisks when the user types in data such as password?
How do I create multi-column combo box?
How do I make a menu popup from a CommandButton?
How to create menus at run time in VB?
Write a generic error handling routine.
How to copy text to the Windows clipboard and from it.
How can I call a Command button without clicking it?
Write a simple app with Encrypt and Decrypt buttons and Textbox where the user can enter text for encryption and decryption.

Oracle Interview Questions 2008 - Recent Important Oracle Topics..

noreply@blogger.com (hita) — Wed, 19 Mar 2008 18:29:00 +0000

Typical Oracle Questions - 8

Oracle SQL Questions 2008 - 7

Oracle SQL PL Latest Questions 6

Oracle Interview Questions March 2008 - 5

Oracle Technical Interview Questions - 4

Oracle DBA interview questions 2008 - 3

Oracle Database Questions 2008 - 2

Oracle Interview Questions 1

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Typical Oracle Questions - 8

noreply@blogger.com (hita) — Wed, 19 Mar 2008 18:26:00 +0000

Typical Oracle questions

Tell us about yourself, your background.
What are the three major characteristics that you bring to this company?
What version of Oracle were you running?
How many databases did the organization have and what sizes?
What motivates you to do a good job?
What two or three things are most important to you at work?
What qualities do you think are essential to be successful in this kind of work?
What courses did you attend? What job certifications do you hold?
What subjects/courses did you excel in? Why?
What subjects/courses gave you trouble? Why?
How does your previous work experience prepare you for this position?
How do you define ’success’?
What has been your most significant accomplishment to date?
Describe a challenge you encountered and how you dealt with it.
Describe a failure and how you dealt with it.
Describe the ‘ideal’ job… the ‘ideal’ supervisor.
What leadership roles have you held?
What prejudices do you hold?
What do you like to do in your spare time?
What are your career goals (a) 3 years from now; (b) 10 years from now?
How does this position match your career goals?
What have you done in the past year to improve yourself?
In what areas do you feel you need further education and training to be successful?
What do you know about our company?
Why do you want to work for this company. Why should we hire you?
Where do you see yourself fitting in to this organization initially? How about in 5 years?
Why are you looking for a new job?
How do you feel about re-locating?
Are you willing to travel?
What are your salary requirements?
When would you be available to start if you were selected?
Did you use online or off-line backups?
If you have to advise a backup strategy for a new application, how would you approach it and what questions will you ask?
If a customer calls you about a hanging database session, what will you do to resolve it?
Compare Oracle to any other database that you know. Why would you prefer to work on one and not on the other

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Oracle SQL Questions 2008 - 7

noreply@blogger.com (hita) — Wed, 19 Mar 2008 18:18:00 +0000

SQL Interview Questions

1.What is SQL?

SQL stands for 'Structured Query Language'.

2.What is SELECT statement?

The SELECT statement lets you select a set of values from a table in a database. The values selected from the database table would depend on the various conditions that are specified in the SQL query.

3.How can you compare a part of the name rather than the entire name?

SELECT * FROM people WHERE empname LIKE '%ab%'
Would return a recordset with records consisting empname the sequence 'ab' in empname .

4.What is the INSERT statement?

The INSERT statement lets you insert information into a database.

5.How do you delete a record from a database?

Use the DELETE statement to remove records or any particular column values from a database.

6.How could I get distinct entries from a table?

The SELECT statement in conjunction with DISTINCT lets you select a set of distinct values from a table in a database. The values selected from the database table would of course depend on the various conditions that are specified in the SQL query. Example
SELECT DISTINCT empname FROM emptable

7.How to get the results of a Query sorted in any order?

You can sort the results and return the sorted results to your program by using ORDER BY keyword thus saving you the pain of carrying out the sorting yourself. The ORDER BY keyword is used for sorting.

SELECT empname, age, city FROM emptable ORDER BY empname

8.How can I find the total number of records in a table?

You could use the COUNT keyword , example
SELECT COUNT(*) FROM emp WHERE age>40

9.What is GROUP BY?

The GROUP BY keywords have been added to SQL because aggregate functions (like SUM) return the aggregate of all column values every time they are called. Without the GROUP BY functionality, finding the sum for each individual group of column values was not possible.

10.What is the difference among "dropping a table", "truncating a table" and "deleting all records" from a table.

Dropping : (Table structure + Data are deleted), Invalidates the dependent objects ,Drops the indexes

Truncating: (Data alone deleted), Performs an automatic commit, Faster than delete

Delete : (Data alone deleted), Doesn?t perform automatic commit

11.What are the Large object types suported by Oracle?

Blob and Clob.

12.Difference between a "where" clause and a "having" clause.

Having clause is used only with group functions whereas Where is not used with.

13.What's the difference between a primary key and a unique key?

Both primary key and unique enforce uniqueness of the column on which they are defined. But by default primary key creates a clustered index on the column, where are unique creates a nonclustered index by default. Another major difference is that, primary key doesn't allow NULLs, but unique key allows one NULL only.

14.What are cursors? Explain different types of cursors. What are the disadvantages of cursors? How can you avoid cursors?

Cursors allow row-by-row prcessing of the resultsets.

Types of cursors: Static, Dynamic, Forward-only, Keyset-driven. See books online for more information.

Disadvantages of cursors: Each time you fetch a row from the cursor, it results in a network roundtrip, where as a normal SELECT query makes only one rowundtrip, however large the resultset is. Cursors are also costly because they require more resources and temporary storage (results in more IO operations). Furthere, there are restrictions on the SELECT statements that can be used with some types of cursors.

Most of the times, set based operations can be used instead of cursors.

15.What are triggers? How to invoke a trigger on demand?

Triggers are special kind of stored procedures that get executed automatically when an INSERT, UPDATE or DELETE operation takes place on a table.

Triggers can't be invoked on demand. They get triggered only when an associated action (INSERT, UPDATE, DELETE) happens on the table on which they are defined.

Triggers are generally used to implement business rules, auditing. Triggers can also be used to extend the referential integrity checks, but wherever possible, use constraints for this purpose, instead of triggers, as constraints are much faster.

16.What is a join and explain different types of joins.

Joins are used in queries to explain how different tables are related. Joins also let you select data from a table depending upon data from another table.

Types of joins: INNER JOINs, OUTER JOINs, CROSS JOINs.

OUTER JOINs are further classified as LEFT OUTER JOINS, RIGHT OUTER JOINS and FULL OUTER JOINS.

17.What is a self join?

Self join is just like any other join, except that two instances of the same table will be joined in the query.

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Oracle SQL PL Latest Questions 6

noreply@blogger.com (hita) — Wed, 19 Mar 2008 18:14:00 +0000

PL - SQL Questions

Which of the following statements is true about implicit cursors?
1. Implicit cursors are used for SQL statements that are not named.
2. Developers should use implicit cursors with great care.
3. Implicit cursors are used in cursor for loops to handle data processing.
4. Implicit cursors are no longer a feature in Oracle.
Which of the following is not a feature of a cursor FOR loop?
1. Record type declaration.
2. Opening and parsing of SQL statements.
3. Fetches records from cursor.
4. Requires exit condition to be defined.
A developer would like to use referential datatype declaration on a variable. The variable name is EMPLOYEE_LASTNAME, and the corresponding table and column is EMPLOYEE, and LNAME, respectively. How would the developer define this variable using referential datatypes?
1. Use employee.lname%type.
2. Use employee.lname%rowtype.
3. Look up datatype for EMPLOYEE column on LASTNAME table and use that.
4. Declare it to be type LONG.
Which three of the following are implicit cursor attributes?
1. %found
2. %too_many_rows
3. %notfound
4. %rowcount
5. %rowtype
If left out, which of the following would cause an infinite loop to occur in a simple loop?
1. LOOP
2. END LOOP
3. IF-THEN
4. EXIT
Which line in the following statement will produce an error?
1. cursor action_cursor is
2. select name, rate, action
3. into action_record
4. from action_table;
5. There are no errors in this statement.
The command used to open a CURSOR FOR loop is
1. open
2. fetch
3. parse
4. None, cursor for loops handle cursor opening implicitly.
What happens when rows are found using a FETCH statement
1. It causes the cursor to close
2. It causes the cursor to open
3. It loads the current row values into variables
4. It creates the variables to hold the current row values

Read the following code:

CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE find_cpt
(v_movie_id {Argument Mode} NUMBER, v_cost_per_ticket {argument mode} NUMBER)
IS
BEGIN
  IF v_cost_per_ticket  > 8.5 THEN
SELECT  cost_per_ticket
INTO            v_cost_per_ticket
FROM            gross_receipt
WHERE   movie_id = v_movie_id;
  END IF;
END;

Which mode should be used for V_COST_PER_TICKET?

IN
OUT
RETURN
IN OUT

Read the following code:
```
CREATE OR REPLACE TRIGGER update_show_gross
      {trigger information}
     BEGIN
      {additional code}
     END;
```
The trigger code should only execute when the column, COST_PER_TICKET, is greater than $3. Which trigger information will you add?
1. WHEN (new.cost_per_ticket > 3.75)
2. WHEN (:new.cost_per_ticket > 3.75
3. WHERE (new.cost_per_ticket > 3.75)
4. WHERE (:new.cost_per_ticket > 3.75)
What is the maximum number of handlers processed before the PL/SQL block is exited when an exception occurs?
1. Only one
2. All that apply
3. All referenced
4. None
For which trigger timing can you reference the NEW and OLD qualifiers?
1. Statement and Row
2. Statement only
3. Row only
4. Oracle Forms trigger
Read the following code:
```
CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION get_budget(v_studio_id IN NUMBER)
RETURN number IS
 
v_yearly_budget NUMBER;
 
BEGIN
       SELECT  yearly_budget
       INTO            v_yearly_budget
       FROM            studio
       WHERE   id = v_studio_id;
 
       RETURN v_yearly_budget;
END;
```
Which set of statements will successfully invoke this function within SQL*Plus?
1. VARIABLE g_yearly_budget NUMBER
  EXECUTE g_yearly_budget := GET_BUDGET(11);
2. VARIABLE g_yearly_budget NUMBER
  EXECUTE :g_yearly_budget := GET_BUDGET(11);
3. VARIABLE :g_yearly_budget NUMBER
  EXECUTE :g_yearly_budget := GET_BUDGET(11);
4. VARIABLE g_yearly_budget NUMBER
  :g_yearly_budget := GET_BUDGET(11);
```
CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE update_theater
(v_name IN VARCHAR v_theater_id IN NUMBER) IS
BEGIN
       UPDATE  theater
       SET             name = v_name
       WHERE   id = v_theater_id;
END update_theater;
```
When invoking this procedure, you encounter the error:
```
ORA-000: Unique constraint(SCOTT.THEATER_NAME_UK) violated.
```
How should you modify the function to handle this error?
1. An user defined exception must be declared and associated with the error code and handled in the EXCEPTION section.
2. Handle the error in EXCEPTION section by referencing the error code directly.
3. Handle the error in the EXCEPTION section by referencing the UNIQUE_ERROR predefined exception.
4. Check for success by checking the value of SQL%FOUND immediately after the UPDATE statement.
Read the following code:
```
CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE calculate_budget IS
v_budget        studio.yearly_budget%TYPE;
BEGIN
       v_budget := get_budget(11);
       IF v_budget < 30000
  THEN
               set_budget(11,30000000);
       END IF;
END;
```
You are about to add an argument to CALCULATE_BUDGET. What effect will this have?
1. The GET_BUDGET function will be marked invalid and must be recompiled before the next execution.
2. The SET_BUDGET function will be marked invalid and must be recompiled before the next execution.
3. Only the CALCULATE_BUDGET procedure needs to be recompiled.
4. All three procedures are marked invalid and must be recompiled.
Which procedure can be used to create a customized error message?
1. RAISE_ERROR
2. SQLERRM
3. RAISE_APPLICATION_ERROR
4. RAISE_SERVER_ERROR
The CHECK_THEATER trigger of the THEATER table has been disabled. Which command can you issue to enable this trigger?
1. ALTER TRIGGER check_theater ENABLE;
2. ENABLE TRIGGER check_theater;
3. ALTER TABLE check_theater ENABLE check_theater;
4. ENABLE check_theater;
Examine this database trigger
```
CREATE OR REPLACE TRIGGER prevent_gross_modification
{additional trigger information}
BEGIN
       IF TO_CHAR(sysdate, DY) = MON
 THEN
 RAISE_APPLICATION_ERROR(-20000,Gross receipts cannot be deleted on
```
```
 Monday);
       END IF;
END;
```
This trigger must fire before each DELETE of the GROSS_RECEIPT table. It should fire only once for the entire DELETE statement. What additional information must you add?
1. BEFORE DELETE ON gross_receipt
2. AFTER DELETE ON gross_receipt
3. BEFORE (gross_receipt DELETE)
4. FOR EACH ROW DELETED FROM gross_receipt

Examine this function:

CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION set_budget
(v_studio_id IN NUMBER, v_new_budget IN NUMBER) IS
BEGIN
       UPDATE  studio
       SET             yearly_budget = v_new_budget
       WHERE   id = v_studio_id;
 
       IF SQL%FOUND THEN
               RETURN TRUEl;
       ELSE
               RETURN FALSE;
       END IF;
 
       COMMIT;
END;

Which code must be added to successfully compile this function?

Add RETURN right before the IS keyword.
Add RETURN number right before the IS keyword.
Add RETURN boolean right after the IS keyword.
Add RETURN boolean right before the IS keyword.

Under which circumstance must you recompile the package body after recompiling the package specification?
1. Altering the argument list of one of the package constructs
2. Any change made to one of the package constructs
3. Any SQL statement change made to one of the package constructs
4. Removing a local variable from the DECLARE section of one of the package constructs
Procedure and Functions are explicitly executed. This is different from a database trigger. When is a database trigger executed?
1. When the transaction is committed
2. During the data manipulation statement
3. When an Oracle supplied package references the trigger
4. During a data manipulation statement and when the transaction is committed
Which Oracle supplied package can you use to output values and messages from database triggers, stored procedures and functions within SQL*Plus?
1. DBMS_DISPLAY
2. DBMS_OUTPUT
3. DBMS_LIST
4. DBMS_DESCRIBE
What occurs if a procedure or function terminates with failure without being handled?
1. Any DML statements issued by the construct are still pending and can be committed or rolled back.
2. Any DML statements issued by the construct are committed
3. Unless a GOTO statement is used to continue processing within the BEGIN section, the construct terminates.
4. The construct rolls back any DML statements issued and returns the unhandled exception to the calling environment.
Examine this code
```
BEGIN
       theater_pck.v_total_seats_sold_overall := theater_pck.get_total_for_year;
END;
```
For this code to be successful, what must be true?
1. Both the V_TOTAL_SEATS_SOLD_OVERALL variable and the GET_TOTAL_FOR_YEAR function must exist only in the body of the THEATER_PCK package.
2. Only the GET_TOTAL_FOR_YEAR variable must exist in the specification of the THEATER_PCK package.
3. Only the V_TOTAL_SEATS_SOLD_OVERALL variable must exist in the specification of the THEATER_PCK package.
4. Both the V_TOTAL_SEATS_SOLD_OVERALL variable and the GET_TOTAL_FOR_YEAR function must exist in the specification of the THEATER_PCK package.
A stored function must return a value based on conditions that are determined at runtime. Therefore, the SELECT statement cannot be hard-coded and must be created dynamically when the function is executed. Which Oracle supplied package will enable this feature?
1. DBMS_DDL
2. DBMS_DML
3. DBMS_SYN
4. DBMS_SQL

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Oracle Interview Questions March 2008 - 5

noreply@blogger.com (hita) — Wed, 19 Mar 2008 18:11:00 +0000

Oracle interview questions

What is an oracle instance?
What is a view?
What is referential integrity?
Name the data dictionary that stores user-defined constraints?
What is a collection of privileges?
What is a snapshot?
What is a synonym?
What is a cursor?
What is a sequence?
What is a trigger?
What is an exception?
What is a partition of table?
What are pseudo-columns in SQL? Provide examples.
What are the Data Control statements?
What is a schema?
What is a type?
What is a data model?
What is a relation?
Advantages of redo log files?
What is an Archiver?
What is a database buffer cache?
What are the background processes in Oracle?
%type and %rowtype are attributes for…?
What are the steps in a two-phase commit?
What is a union, intersect, minus?
What is a join, explain the types of joins?
What is a co-related sub-query?
ODBC stands for…?
Data-type used to work with integers is?
Describe data models?
Describe the Normalization principles?
What are the types of Normalization?
What is de-normalization?

Latest Oracle 2008 technical interview questions asked in placement papers interviews. These are important questions. Also see multiple choice questions MCQs of leading companies like Oracle, TCS, Infosys, Wipro, Satyam, Accenture, HCL, Microsoft, SAP, etc. online here for 2008 and 2007 all months..

Oracle Technical Interview Questions - 4

noreply@blogger.com (hita) — Wed, 19 Mar 2008 18:08:00 +0000

Oracle interview questions

What’s the command to see the current user name? Sql> show user;
What’s the command to change the SQL prompt name?
SQL> set sqlprompt “database-1 > ”
database-1 >
database-1 >
How do I eliminate duplicate rows in an Oracle database?
SQL> delete from table_name where rowid not in (select max(rowid) from table group by duplicate_values_field_name);
or
SQL> delete duplicate_values_field_name dv from table_name ta where rowid < (select min(rowid) from table_name tb where ta.dv=tb.dv);
How do I display row number with records? Use the row-num pseudocolumn with query, like
SQL> select rownum, ename from emp;
How do you display the records within a given range?
select rownum, empno, ename from emp where rowid in
(select rowid from emp where rownum < =&rangeend
minus
select rowid from emp where rownum<&rangebegin);
The NVL function only allows the same data type. But here’s the task: if the commission field is null, then the text “Not Applicable” should be displayed, instead of blank space. How do you write the query?
SQL> select nvl(to_char(comm.),’Not Applicable’) from emp;
Explain explicit cursor attributes. There are four cursor attributes used in Oracle: cursor_name%Found, cursor_name%NOTFOUND, cursor_name%ROWCOUNT, cursor_name%ISOPEN
Explain implicit cursor attributes. Same as explicit cursor but prefixed by the word SQL: SQL%Found, SQL%NOTFOUND, SQL%ROWCOUNT, SQL%ISOPEN
How do you view version information in Oracle?
SQL> select banner from $version;

10. How do you switch to DOS prompt from SQL prompt? SQL> host

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Oracle DBA interview questions 2008 - 3

noreply@blogger.com (hita) — Wed, 19 Mar 2008 18:05:00 +0000

Oracle DBA interview questions

Explain the difference between a hot backup and a cold backup and the benefits associated with each. - A hot backup is basically taking a backup of the database while it is still up and running and it must be in archive log mode. A cold backup is taking a backup of the database while it is shut down and does not require being in archive log mode. The benefit of taking a hot backup is that the database is still available for use while the backup is occurring and you can recover the database to any point in time. The benefit of taking a cold backup is that it is typically easier to administer the backup and recovery process. In addition, since you are taking cold backups the database does not require being in archive log mode and thus there will be a slight performance gain as the database is not cutting archive logs to disk.
You have just had to restore from backup and do not have any control files. How would you go about bringing up this database? - I would create a text based backup control file, stipulating where on disk all the data files where and then issue the recover command with the using backup control file clause.
How do you switch from an init.ora file to a spfile? - Issue the create spfile from pfile command.
Explain the difference between a data block, an extent and a segment. - A data block is the smallest unit of logical storage for a database object. As objects grow they take chunks of additional storage that are composed of contiguous data blocks. These groupings of contiguous data blocks are called extents. All the extents that an object takes when grouped together are considered the segment of the database object.
Give two examples of how you might determine the structure of the table DEPT. - Use the describe command or use the dbms_metadata.get_ddl package.
Where would you look for errors from the database engine? - In the alert log.
Compare and contrast TRUNCATE and DELETE for a table. - Both the truncate and delete command have the desired outcome of getting rid of all the rows in a table. The difference between the two is that the truncate command is a DDL operation and just moves the high water mark and produces a now rollback. The delete command, on the other hand, is a DML operation, which will produce a rollback and thus take longer to complete.
Give the reasoning behind using an index. - Faster access to data blocks in a table.
Give the two types of tables involved in producing a star schema and the type of data they hold. - Fact tables and dimension tables. A fact table contains measurements while dimension tables will contain data that will help describe the fact tables.
What type of index should you use on a fact table? - A Bitmap index.
Give two examples of referential integrity constraints. - A primary key and a foreign key.
A table is classified as a parent table and you want to drop and re-create it. How would you do this without affecting the children tables? - Disable the foreign key constraint to the parent, drop the table, re-create the table, enable the foreign key constraint.
Explain the difference between ARCHIVELOG mode and NOARCHIVELOG mode and the benefits and disadvantages to each. - ARCHIVELOG mode is a mode that you can put the database in for creating a backup of all transactions that have occurred in the database so that you can recover to any point in time. NOARCHIVELOG mode is basically the absence of ARCHIVELOG mode and has the disadvantage of not being able to recover to any point in time. NOARCHIVELOG mode does have the advantage of not having to write transactions to an archive log and thus increases the performance of the database slightly.
What command would you use to create a backup control file? - Alter database backup control file to trace.
Give the stages of instance startup to a usable state where normal users may access it. - STARTUP NOMOUNT - Instance startup. STARTUP MOUNT - The database is mounted. STARTUP OPEN - The database is opened
What column differentiates the V$ views to the GV$ views and how? - The INST_ID column which indicates the instance in a RAC environment the information came from.
How would you go about generating an EXPLAIN plan? - Create a plan table with utlxplan.sql. Use the explain plan set statement_id = ‘tst1′ into plan_table for a SQL statement. Look at the explain plan with utlxplp.sql or utlxpls.sql
How would you go about increasing the buffer cache hit ratio? - Use the buffer cache advisory over a given workload and then query the v$db_cache_advice table. If a change was necessary then I would use the alter system set db_cache_size command.
Explain an ORA-01555 - You get this error when you get a snapshot too old within rollback. It can usually be solved by increasing the undo retention or increasing the size of rollbacks. You should also look at the logic involved in the application getting the error message.
Explain the difference between $ORACLE_HOME and $ORACLE_BASE. - ORACLE_BASE is the root directory for oracle. ORACLE_HOME located beneath ORACLE_BASE is where the oracle products reside

Oracle Database Questions 2008 - 2

noreply@blogger.com (hita) — Wed, 19 Mar 2008 17:45:00 +0000

Interview questions for Oracle database administrator

Differentiate between TRUNCATE and DELETE
What is the maximum buffer size that can be specified using the DBMS_OUTPUT.ENABLE function?
Can you use a commit statement within a database trigger?
What is an UTL_FILE.What are different procedures and functions associated with it?
Difference between database triggers and form triggers?
What is OCI. What are its uses?
What are ORACLE PRECOMPILERS?
What is syntax for dropping a procedure and a function? Are these operations possible?
Can a function take OUT parameters. If not why?
Can the default values be assigned to actual parameters?
What is difference between a formal and an actual parameter?
What are different modes of parameters used in functions and procedures?
Difference between procedure and function.
Can cursor variables be stored in PL/SQL tables.If yes how. If not why?
How do you pass cursor variables in PL/SQL?
How do you open and close a cursor variable.Why it is required?
What should be the return type for a cursor variable.Can we use a scalar data type as return type?
What is use of a cursor variable? How it is defined?
What WHERE CURRENT OF clause does in a cursor?
Difference between NO DATA FOUND and %NOTFOUND
What is a cursor for loop?
What are cursor attributes?
Difference between an implicit & an explicit cursor.
What is a cursor?
What is the purpose of a cluster?
How do you find the numbert of rows in a Table ?
Display the number value in Words?
What is a pseudo column. Give some examples?
How you will avoid your query from using indexes?
What is a OUTER JOIN?
Which is more faster - IN or EXISTS?
When do you use WHERE clause and when do you use HAVING clause?
There is a % sign in one field of a column. What will be the query to find it?
What is difference between SUBSTR and INSTR?
Which datatype is used for storing graphics and images?
What is difference between SQL and SQL*PLUS?
What is difference between UNIQUE and PRIMARY KEY constraints?
What is difference between Rename and Alias?
What are various joins used while writing SUBQUERIES

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Oracle Interview Questions 1

noreply@blogger.com (hita) — Wed, 19 Mar 2008 17:26:00 +0000

SQL Interview Questions

1.What is SQL?

SQL stands for 'Structured Query Language'.

2.What is SELECT statement?

3.How can you compare a part of the name rather than the entire name?

SELECT * FROM people WHERE empname LIKE '%ab%'
Would return a recordset with records consisting empname the sequence 'ab' in empname .

4.What is the INSERT statement?

The INSERT statement lets you insert information into a database.

5.How do you delete a record from a database?

Use the DELETE statement to remove records or any particular column values from a database.

6.How could I get distinct entries from a table?

7.How to get the results of a Query sorted in any order?

8.How can I find the total number of records in a table?

You could use the COUNT keyword , example
SELECT COUNT(*) FROM emp WHERE age>40

9.What is GROUP BY?

10.What is the difference among "dropping a table", "truncating a table" and "deleting all records" from a table.

Dropping : (Table structure + Data are deleted), Invalidates the dependent objects ,Drops the indexes

Truncating: (Data alone deleted), Performs an automatic commit, Faster than delete

Delete : (Data alone deleted), Doesn?t perform automatic commit

What are the Large object types suported by Oracle?

Blob and Clob.

11.Difference between a "where" clause and a "having" clause.

Having clause is used only with group functions whereas Where is not used with.

12.What's the difference between a primary key and a unique key?

13.What are cursors? Explain different types of cursors. What are the disadvantages of cursors? How can you avoid cursors?

Cursors allow row-by-row prcessing of the resultsets.

Types of cursors: Static, Dynamic, Forward-only, Keyset-driven. See books online for more information.

Most of the times, set based operations can be used instead of cursors.

14.What are triggers? How to invoke a trigger on demand?

Triggers are special kind of stored procedures that get executed automatically when an INSERT, UPDATE or DELETE operation takes place on a table.

Triggers can't be invoked on demand. They get triggered only when an associated action (INSERT, UPDATE, DELETE) happens on the table on which they are defined.

15.What is a join and explain different types of joins.

Joins are used in queries to explain how different tables are related. Joins also let you select data from a table depending upon data from another table.

Types of joins: INNER JOINs, OUTER JOINs, CROSS JOINs. OUTER JOINs are further classified as LEFT OUTER JOINS, RIGHT OUTER JOINS and FULL OUTER JOINS.

16.What is a self join?

Self join is just like any other join, except that two instances of the same table will be joined in the query

Java Interview Questions

noreply@blogger.com (hita) — Wed, 19 Mar 2008 13:00:00 +0000

Java JDBC and JSP Interview Questions 25

Java General Basic Interview Questions 24

Java mostly asked important technical Interview Questions 23

Java Interview Important Questions 22

Java Networking Interview Questions 21

Java Swings Interview Questions 20

Java Interview Questions 19

Java Graphic User Interface Designer Interview Questions 18

Java Database Interview Questions 17

Java Technical Interview Questions 16

Java Applets Interview Questions 15

Java Oracle Jserver Interview Questions 14

Java Placement Interview Questions 13

Java Latest Interview Questions 12

Java Interview Questions and Answers 11

Java Servlet Interview Important Questions 10

Java Interview Questions Collection 9

Java Latest Interview Questions 8

Core Java Latest Interview Questions 7

Java Engineering Interview Questions 6

Java JSP Interview Questions with Answers 5

Java and Networking Interview Questions 4

Java Questions and Answers 3

Java Interview Questions and answers 2

Java Questions and answers 1

Java JDBC and JSP Interview Questions 25

noreply@blogger.com (hita) — Wed, 19 Mar 2008 12:55:00 +0000

JDBC and JSP interview questions

What is the query used to display all tables names in SQL Server (Query analyzer)?
```
 select * from information_schema.tables
```
How many types of JDBC Drivers are present and what are they?- There are 4 types of JDBC Drivers
- JDBC-ODBC Bridge Driver
- Native API Partly Java Driver
- Network protocol Driver
- JDBC Net pure Java Driver
Can we implement an interface in a JSP?- No
What is the difference between ServletContext and PageContext?- ServletContext: Gives the information about the container. PageContext: Gives the information about the Request
What is the difference in using request.getRequestDispatcher() and context.getRequestDispatcher()?- request.getRequestDispatcher(path): In order to create it we need to give the relative path of the resource, context.getRequestDispatcher(path): In order to create it we need to give the absolute path of the resource.
How to pass information from JSP to included JSP?- Using <%jsp:param> tag.
What is the difference between directive include and jsp include?- <%@ include>: Used to include static resources during translation time. JSP include: Used to include dynamic content or static content during runtime.
What is the difference between RequestDispatcher and sendRedirect?- RequestDispatcher: server-side redirect with request and response objects. sendRedirect : Client-side redirect with new request and response objects.
How does JSP handle runtime exceptions?- Using errorPage attribute of page directive and also we need to specify isErrorPage=true if the current page is intended to URL redirecting of a JSP.

How do you delete a Cookie within a JSP?

 Cookie mycook = new Cookie(\"name\",\"value\");
 response.addCookie(mycook);
 Cookie killmycook = new Cookie(\"mycook\",\"value\");
 killmycook.setMaxAge(0);
 killmycook.setPath(\"/\");
 killmycook.addCookie(killmycook);

How do I mix JSP and SSI #include?- If you’re just including raw HTML, use the #include directive as usual inside your .jsp file.
```
 
```
But it’s a little trickier if you want the server to evaluate any JSP code that’s inside the included file. If your data.inc file contains jsp code you will have to use
```
 <%@ vinclude="data.inc" %>
```
The is used for including non-JSP files.
I made my class Cloneable but I still get Can’t access protected method clone. Why?- Some of the Java books imply that all you have to do in order to have your class support clone() is implement the Cloneable interface. Not so. Perhaps that was the intent at some point, but that’s not the way it works currently. As it stands, you have to implement your own public clone() method, even if it doesn’t do anything special and just calls super.clone().
Why is XML such an important development?- It removes two constraints which were holding back Web developments: dependence on a single, inflexible document type (HTML) which was being much abused for tasks it was never designed for; the complexity of full SGML, whose syntax allows many powerful but hard-to-program options. XML allows the flexible development of user-defined document types. It provides a robust, non-proprietary, persistent, and verifiable file format for the storage and transmission of text and data both on and off the Web; and it removes the more complex options of SGML, making it easier to program for.
What is the fastest type of JDBC driver?- JDBC driver performance will depend on a number of issues:
- the quality of the driver code,
- the size of the driver code,
- the database server and its load,
- network topology,
- the number of times your request is translated to a different API.
In general, all things being equal, you can assume that the more your request and response change hands, the slower it will be. This means that Type 1 and Type 3 drivers will be slower than Type 2 drivers (the database calls are make at least three translations versus two), and Type 4 drivers are the fastest (only one translation).

How do I find whether a parameter exists in the request object?

boolean hasFoo = !(request.getParameter(\"foo\") == null
  request.getParameter(\"foo\").equals(\"\"));

boolean hasParameter =
 request.getParameterMap().contains(theParameter); //(which works in Servlet 2.3+)

How can I send user authentication information while makingURLConnection?- You’ll want to use HttpURLConnection.setRequestProperty and set all the appropriate headers to HTTP authorization.

See more latest Java, javascript, java beans, java struts, swings, animation, graphics, GUI recent important questions mostly asked in common interview questions pre placement and GD topics. See Technical interview java questions commonly asked placement questions for top IT MNCs in India, USA, UK, Norway, China, etc.

Java General Basic Interview Questions 24

noreply@blogger.com (hita) — Wed, 19 Mar 2008 12:54:00 +0000

Java Interview Questions

1.How are Observer and Observable used?

Objects that subclass the Observable class maintain a list of observers. When an Observable object is updated it invokes the update() method of each of its observers to notify the observers that it has changed state. The Observer interface is implemented by objects that observe Observable objects.

2.What is synchronization and why is it important?

With respect to multithreading, synchronization is the capability to control
the access of multiple threads to shared resources. Without synchronization, it is possible for one thread to modify a shared object while another thread is in the process of using or updating that object's value. This often leads to
significant errors.

3.How does Java handle integer overflows and underflows?

It uses those low order bytes of the result that can fit into the size of the type allowed by the operation.

4.Does garbage collection guarantee that a program will not run out of memory?

Garbage collection does not guarantee that a program will not run out of
memory. It is possible for programs to use up memory resources faster than they are garbage collected. It is also possible for programs to create objects that are not subject to garbage collection

5.What is the difference between preemptive scheduling and time slicing?

Under preemptive scheduling, the highest priority task executes until it enters
the waiting or dead states or a higher priority task comes into existence. Under time slicing, a task executes for a predefined slice of time and then reenters the pool of ready tasks. The scheduler then determines which task should execute next, based on priority and other factors.

6.When a thread is created and started, what is its initial state?

A thread is in the ready state after it has been created and started.

7.What is the purpose of finalization?

The purpose of finalization is to give an unreachable object the opportunity to perform any cleanup processing before the object is garbage collected.

8.What is the Locale class?

The Locale class is used to tailor program output to the conventions of a
particular geographic, political, or cultural region.

9.What is the difference between a while statement and a do statement?

A while statement checks at the beginning of a loop to see whether the next
loop iteration should occur. A do statement checks at the end of a loop to see whether the next iteration of a loop should occur. The do statement will
always execute the body of a loop at least once.

10.What is the difference between static and non-static variables?

A static variable is associated with the class as a whole rather than with specific instances of a class. Non-static variables take on unique values with each object instance.

11.How are this() and super() used with constructors?

this() is used to invoke a constructor of the same class. super() is used to
invoke a superclass constructor.

12.What are synchronized methods and synchronized statements?

Synchronized methods are methods that are used to control access to an object. A thread only executes a synchronized method after it has acquired the lock for the method's object or class. Synchronized statements are similar to synchronized methods. A synchronized statement can only be executed after a thread has acquired the lock for the object or class referenced in the synchronized statement.

Java mostly asked important technical Interview Questions 23

noreply@blogger.com (hita) — Wed, 19 Mar 2008 12:52:00 +0000

Java Interview Questions

1.Does Java provide any construct to find out the size of an object?

No there is not sizeof operator in Java. So there is not direct way to determine the size of an object directly in Java.

2.Does importing a package imports the subpackages as well? e.g. Does importing com.MyTest.* also import com.MyTest.UnitTests.*?

Read the system time just before the method is invoked and immediately after method returns. Take the time difference, which will give you the time taken by a method for execution.

To put it in code...

long start = System.currentTimeMillis ();
method ();
long end = System.currentTimeMillis ();

System.out.println ("Time taken for execution is " + (end - start));

Remember that if the time taken for execution is too small, it might show that it is taking zero milliseconds for execution. Try it on a method which is big enough, in the sense the one which is doing considerable amout of processing.

3.What are wrapper classes?

Java provides specialized classes corresponding to each of the primitive data types. These are called wrapper classes. They are e.g. Integer, Character, Double etc.

4.Why do we need wrapper classes?

It is sometimes easier to deal with primitives as objects. Moreover most of the collection classes store objects and not primitive data types. And also the wrapper classes provide many utility methods also. Because of these resons we need wrapper classes. And since we create instances of these classes we can store them in any of the collection classes and pass them around as a collection. Also we can pass them around as method parameters where a method expects an object.

5.What are checked exceptions?

Checked exception are those which the Java compiler forces you to catch. e.g. IOException are checked Exceptions.

6.What are runtime exceptions?

Runtime exceptions are those exceptions that are thrown at runtime because of either wrong input data or because of wrong business logic etc. These are not checked by the compiler at compile time.

7.What is the difference between error and an exception?

An error is an irrecoverable condition occurring at runtime. Such as OutOfMemory error. These JVM errors and you can not repair them at runtime. While exceptions are conditions that occur because of bad input etc. e.g. FileNotFoundException will be thrown if the specified file does not exist. Or a NullPointerException will take place if you try using a null reference. In most of the cases it is possible to recover from an exception (probably by giving user a feedback for entering proper values etc.).

8.How to create custom exceptions?

Your class should extend class Exception, or some more specific type thereof.

9.If I want an object of my class to be thrown as an exception object, what should I do?

The class should extend from Exception class. Or you can extend your class from some more precise exception type also.

10.If my class already extends from some other class what should I do if I want an instance of my class to be thrown as an exception object?

One can not do anytihng in this scenarion. Because Java does not allow multiple inheritance and does not provide any exception interface as well.

11.What happens to an unhandled exception?

One can not do anytihng in this scenarion. Because Java does not allow multiple inheritance and does not provide any exception interface as well.

12.How does an exception permeate through the code?

An unhandled exception moves up the method stack in search of a matching When an exception is thrown from a code which is wrapped in a try block followed by one or more catch blocks, a search is made for matching catch block. If a matching type is found then that block will be invoked. If a matching type is not found then the exception moves up the method stack and reaches the caller method. Same procedure is repeated if the caller method is included in a try catch block. This process continues until a catch block handling the appropriate type of exception is found. If it does not find such a block then finally the program terminates.

13.What are the different ways to handle exceptions?

There are two ways to handle exceptions,
1. By wrapping the desired code in a try block followed by a catch block to catch the exceptions. and
2. List the desired exceptions in the throws clause of the method and let the caller of the method hadle those exceptions.

14.What is the basic difference between the 2 approaches to exception handling...1> try catch block and 2> specifying the candidate exceptions in the throws clause?
When should you use which approach?

In the first approach as a programmer of the method, you urself are dealing with the exception. This is fine if you are in a best position to decide should be done in case of an exception. Whereas if it is not the responsibility of the method to deal with it's own exceptions, then do not use this approach. In this case use the second approach. In the second approach we are forcing the caller of the method to catch the exceptions, that the method is likely to throw. This is often the approach library creators use. They list the exception in the throws clause and we must catch them. You will find the same approach throughout the java libraries we use.

15.Is it necessary that each try block must be followed by a catch block?

It is not necessary that each try block must be followed by a catch block. It should be followed by either a catch block OR a finally block. And whatever exceptions are likely to be thrown should be declared in the throws clause of the method.

16.If I write return at the end of the try block, will the finally block still execute?

Yes even if you write return as the last statement in the try block and no exception occurs, the finally block will execute. The finally block will execute and then the control return.

17.If I write System.exit (0); at the end of the try block, will the finally block still execute?

No in this case the finally block will not execute because when you say System.exit (0); the control immediately goes out of the program, and thus finally never executes.

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Java Interview Important Questions 22

noreply@blogger.com (hita) — Wed, 19 Mar 2008 12:50:00 +0000

Java Interview Mostly Asked Questions. Lots more only on questionpapers4u.blogspot.com

1.Are the imports checked for validity at compile time? e.g. will the code containing an import such as java.lang.ABCD compile?

Yes the imports are checked for the semantic validity at compile time. The code containing above line of import will not compile. It will throw an error saying,can not resolve symbol
symbol : class ABCD
location: package io
import java.io.ABCD;

2.Does importing a package imports the subpackages as well? e.g. Does importing com.MyTest.* also import com.MyTest.UnitTests.*?

No you will have to import the subpackages explicitly. Importing com.MyTest.* will import classes in the package MyTest only. It will not import any class in any of it's subpackage.

3.What is the difference between declaring a variable and defining a variable?

In declaration we just mention the type of the variable and it's name. We do not initialize it. But defining means declaration + initialization.
e.g String s; is just a declaration while String s = new String ("abcd"); Or String s = "abcd"; are both definitions.

4.What is the default value of an object reference declared as an instance variable?

null unless we define it explicitly.

5.Can a top level class be private or protected?

No. A top level class can not be private or protected. It can have either "public" or no modifier. If it does not have a modifier it is supposed to have a default access.If a top level class is declared as private the compiler will complain that the "modifier private is not allowed here". This means that a top level class can not be private. Same is the case with protected.

6.What type of parameter passing does Java support?

In Java the arguments are always passed by value .

7.Primitive data types are passed by reference or pass by value?

Primitive data types are passed by value.

8.Objects are passed by value or by reference?

Java only supports pass by value. With objects, the object reference itself is passed by value and so both the original reference and parameter copy both refer to the same object .

9.What is serialization?

Serialization is a mechanism by which you can save the state of an object by converting it to a byte stream.

10.How do I serialize an object to a file?

The class whose instances are to be serialized should implement an interface Serializable. Then you pass the instance to the ObjectOutputStream which is connected to a fileoutputstream. This will save the object to a file.

11.Which methods of Serializable interface should I implement?

The serializable interface is an empty interface, it does not contain any methods. So we do not implement any methods.

12.How can I customize the seralization process? i.e. how can one have a control over the serialization process?

Yes it is possible to have control over serialization process. The class should implement Externalizable interface. This interface contains two methods namely readExternal and writeExternal. You should implement these methods and write the logic for customizing the serialization process.

13.What is the common usage of serialization?

Whenever an object is to be sent over the network, objects need to be serialized. Moreover if the state of an object is to be saved, objects need to be serilazed.

14.What is Externalizable interface?

Externalizable is an interface which contains two methods readExternal and writeExternal. These methods give you a control over the serialization mechanism. Thus if your class implements this interface, you can customize the serialization process by implementing these methods.

15.What happens to the object references included in the object?

The serialization mechanism generates an object graph for serialization. Thus it determines whether the included object references are serializable or not. This is a recursive process. Thus when an object is serialized, all the included objects are also serialized alongwith the original obect.

16.What one should take care of while serializing the object?

One should make sure that all the included objects are also serializable. If any of the objects is not serializable then it throws a NotSerializableException.

17.What happens to the static fields of a class during serialization? Are these fields serialized as a part of each serialized object?

Yes the static fields do get serialized. If the static field is an object then it must have implemented Serializable interface. The static fields are serialized as a part of every object. But the commonness of the static fields across all the instances is maintained even after serialization.

Java Networking Interview Questions 21

noreply@blogger.com (hita) — Wed, 19 Mar 2008 12:47:00 +0000

Java networking and algorithms interview questions

What is the protocol used by server and client ?
Can I modify an object in CORBA ?
What is the functionality stubs and skeletons ?
What is the mapping mechanism used by Java to identify IDL language ?
Diff between Application and Applet ?
What is serializable Interface ?
What is the difference between CGI and Servlet ?
What is the use of Interface ?
Why Java is not fully objective oriented ?
Why does not support multiple Inheritance ?
What it the root class for all Java classes ?
What is polymorphism ?
Suppose If we have variable ‘ I ‘ in run method, If I can create one or more thread each thread will occupy a separate copy or same variable will be shared ?
In servlets, we are having a web page that is invoking servlets username and password ? which is checked in the database ? Suppose the second page also If we want to verify the same information whether it will connect to the database or it will be used previous information?
What are virtual functions ?
Write down how will you create a binary Tree ?
What are the traverses in Binary Tree ?
Write a program for recursive Traverse ?
What are session variable in Servlets ?
What is client server computing ?
What is Constructor and Virtual function? Can we call Virtual function in a constructor ?
Why we use OOPS concepts? What is its advantage ?
What is the middleware ? What is the functionality of Webserver ?
Why Java is not 100 % pure OOPS ? ( EcomServer )
When we will use an Interface and Abstract class ?
What is an RMI?
How will you pass parameters in RMI ? Why u serialize?
What is the exact difference in between Unicast and Multicast object ? Where we will use ?
What is the main functionality of the Remote Reference Layer ?
How do you download stubs from a Remote place ?
What is the difference in between C++ and Java ? can u explain in detail ?
I want to store more than 10 objects in a remote server ? Which methodology will follow ?
What is the main functionality of the Prepared Statement ?
What is meant by static query and dynamic query ?
What are the Normalization Rules ? Define the Normalization ?
What is meant by Servlet? What are the parameters of the service method ?
What is meant by Session ? Tell me something about HTTPSession Class ?
How do you invoke a Servlet? What is the difference in between doPost and doGet methods ?
What is the difference in between the HTTPServlet and Generic Servlet ? Explain their methods ? Tell me their parameter names also ?
Have you used threads in Servlet ?
Write a program on RMI and JDBC using StoredProcedure ?
How do you sing an Applet ?
In a Container there are 5 components. I want to display the all the components names, how will you do that one ?
Why there are some null interface in java ? What does it mean ? Give me some null interfaces in JAVA ?
Tell me the latest versions in JAVA related areas ?
What is meant by class loader ? How many types are there? When will we use them ?
How do you load an Image in a Servlet ?
What is meant by flickering ?
What is meant by distributed Application ? Why we are using that in our applications ?
What is the functionality of the stub ?
Have you used any version control ?
What is the latest version of JDBC ? What are the new features are added in that ?
Explain 2 tier and 3 -tier Architecture ?
What is the role of the webserver ?
How have you done validation of the fields in your project ?
What is the main difficulties that you are faced in your project ?
What is meant by cookies ? Explain ?

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Java Swings Interview Questions 20

noreply@blogger.com (hita) — Wed, 19 Mar 2008 12:46:00 +0000

Java Swing interview questions

1) Can a class be it’s own event handler? Explain how to implement this.

Answer: Sure. an example could be a class that extends Jbutton and implements ActionListener. In the actionPerformed method, put the code to perform when the button is pressed.

2) Why does JComponent have add() and remove() methods but Component does not?

Answer: because JComponent is a subclass of Container, and can contain other components and jcomponents.

3) How would you create a button with rounded edges?

Answer: there’s 2 ways. The first thing is to know that a JButton’s edges are drawn by a Border. so you can override the Button’s paintComponent(Graphics) method and draw a circle or rounded rectangle (whatever), and turn off the border. Or you can create a custom border that draws a circle or rounded rectangle around any component and set the button’s border to it.

4) If I wanted to use a SolarisUI for just a JTabbedPane, and the Metal UI for everything else, how would I do that?

Answer: in the UIDefaults table, override the entry for tabbed pane and put in the SolarisUI delegate. (I don’t know it offhand, but I think it’s "com.sun.ui.motiflookandfeel.MotifTabbedPaneUI" - anything simiar is a good answer.)

5) What is the difference between the ‘Font’ and ‘FontMetrics’ class?

Answer: The Font Class is used to render ‘glyphs’ - the characters you see on the screen. FontMetrics encapsulates information about a specific font on a specific Graphics object. (width of the characters, ascent, descent)

6) What class is at the top of the AWT event hierarchy?

Answer: java.awt.AWTEvent. if they say java.awt.Event, they haven’t dealt with swing or AWT in a while.

7) Explain how to render an HTML page using only Swing.

Answer: Use a JEditorPane or JTextPane and set it with an HTMLEditorKit, then load the text into the pane.

8) How would you detect a keypress in a JComboBox?

Answer: This is a trick. most people would say ‘add a KeyListener to the JComboBox’ - but the right answer is ‘add a KeyListener to the JComboBox’s editor component.’

9) Why should the implementation of any Swing callback (like a listener) execute quickly?

A: Because callbacks are invoked by the event dispatch thread which will be blocked processing other events for as long as your method takes to execute.

10) In what context should the value of Swing components be updated directly?

A: Swing components should be updated directly only in the context of callback methods invoked from the event dispatch thread. Any other context is not thread safe?

11) Why would you use SwingUtilities.invokeAndWait or SwingUtilities.invokeLater?

A: I want to update a Swing component but I’m not in a callback. If I want the update to happen immediately (perhaps for a progress bar component) then I’d use invokeAndWait. If I don’t care when the update occurs, I’d use invokeLater.

12) If your UI seems to freeze periodically, what might be a likely reason?

A: A callback implementation like ActionListener.actionPerformed or MouseListener.mouseClicked is taking a long time to execute thereby blocking the event dispatch thread from processing other UI events.

13) Which Swing methods are thread-safe?

A: The only thread-safe methods are repaint(), revalidate(), and invalidate()

14) Why won’t the JVM terminate when I close all the application windows?

A: The AWT event dispatcher thread is not a daemon thread. You must explicitly call System.exit to terminate the JVM.

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