Smart Vidya

GFR 2017 MCQ Set 9: Government Accounts: Form, Principles and Classification (25 Questions with Answers)

2026-10-29T15:00:00.000+05:30

This is Set 9 of 48 in the smartvidya question bank on the General Financial Rules (GFR) 2017, updated up to 31.01.2026. Part III: Government accounts. This set covers Rules 71 to 84: preparation, form, principles, structure and classification of accounts.

Try each question first, then tap Show answer to see the correct option, a short explanation and the rule reference. The questions are useful for departmental examinations, SAS, JAO and AAO examinations, LDCE and promotion tests, and for officers dealing with finance and procurement.

Set 9: Government Accounts: Form, Principles and Classification

1. Accounts of the Union Government are prepared every year by
(a) the Comptroller and Auditor General
(b) the Controller General of Accounts
(c) each Ministry independently
(d) the Reserve Bank of India
Ans. (b) the Controller General of Accounts — Explanation: Rule 71 provides that the CGA prepares the accounts, which are certified by the CAG and submitted to the President. [Ref: Rule 71]

2. The certified Union accounts with the CAG's report are submitted to the President, preferably within
(a) three months of the close of the financial year
(b) six months of the close of the financial year
(c) one month of the close of the financial year
(d) one year of the close of the financial year
Ans. (b) six months of the close of the financial year — Explanation: Rule 71 prefers submission within six months; the President causes them to be laid before Parliament. [Ref: Rule 71]

3. The form in which the Accounts of the Union are kept is prescribed by the President on the advice of the CAG under
(a) Article 284 of the Constitution
(b) Article 112 of the Constitution
(c) Article 150 of the Constitution
(d) Article 266 of the Constitution
Ans. (c) Article 150 of the Constitution — Explanation: Rule 72 refers to Article 150; the CGA frames and revises rules and manuals on behalf of the President. [Ref: Rule 72]

4. The main principles of maintaining Government of India accounts are contained in
(a) the Companies Act, 2013
(b) the Fundamental Rules
(c) the DFPR 2024 only
(d) the Government Accounting Rules, 1990, Accounting Rules for Treasuries and Account Code Volume-III
Ans. (d) the Government Accounting Rules, 1990, Accounting Rules for Treasuries and Account Code Volume-III — Explanation: Rule 73 lists these sources of accounting principles. [Ref: Rule 73]

5. Government accounts are prepared on
(a) modified accrual basis
(b) commitment basis
(c) cash basis
(d) accrual basis
Ans. (c) cash basis — Explanation: Rule 74 states accounts are on cash basis, except for authorised book adjustments. [Ref: Rule 74]

6. Government accounts are maintained in
(a) the currency of each transaction
(b) Special Drawing Rights
(c) US Dollars
(d) Indian Rupees, with foreign currency transactions converted into Rupees
Ans. (d) Indian Rupees, with foreign currency transactions converted into Rupees — Explanation: Rule 76 requires accounts in Indian Rupees. [Ref: Rule 76]

7. Government accounts are kept in how many parts?
(a) Four: Revenue, Capital, Debt and Deposits
(b) Three: Consolidated Fund, Contingency Fund and Public Account
(c) Two: Revenue and Capital
(d) One: Consolidated Fund
Ans. (b) Three: Consolidated Fund, Contingency Fund and Public Account — Explanation: Rule 77 divides accounts into Part I (Consolidated Fund), Part II (Contingency Fund) and Part III (Public Account). [Ref: Rule 77]

8. Part I, the Consolidated Fund, is divided into which two Divisions?
(a) Plan and Non-Plan
(b) Charged and Voted
(c) Revenue and Capital
(d) Receipts and Deposits
Ans. (c) Revenue and Capital — Explanation: Rule 77 divides the Consolidated Fund into Revenue and Capital Divisions. [Ref: Rule 77]

9. "Public Debt, Loans and Advances, etc." is a section of
(a) the Revenue Division of the Consolidated Fund
(b) the Contingency Fund
(c) the Public Account
(d) the Capital Division of the Consolidated Fund
Ans. (d) the Capital Division of the Consolidated Fund — Explanation: Rule 77 lists three sections in the Capital Division: Receipt Heads, Expenditure Heads and Public Debt, Loans and Advances. [Ref: Rule 77]

10. Transactions relating to reserve funds, deposits, advances, suspense, remittances and cash balances are recorded in
(a) Part II, the Contingency Fund
(b) the Finance Accounts only
(c) Part I, the Consolidated Fund
(d) Part III, the Public Account
Ans. (d) Part III, the Public Account — Explanation: Rule 77 assigns these transactions to the Public Account. [Ref: Rule 77]

11. Transactions of the Contingency Fund are recorded under
(a) the Public Account
(b) several Major Heads
(c) a single Major Head, followed by Minor, Sub and/or Detailed Heads
(d) the Capital Division
Ans. (c) a single Major Head, followed by Minor, Sub and/or Detailed Heads — Explanation: Rule 77 provides a single Major Head for Contingency Fund transactions. [Ref: Rule 77]

12. As a general rule, classification of transactions in Government Accounts has closer reference to
(a) the name of the officer incurring it
(b) the location of the office
(c) the department in which the expenditure occurs
(d) functions, programmes and activities of Government and the object of revenue or expenditure
Ans. (d) functions, programmes and activities of Government and the object of revenue or expenditure — Explanation: Rule 78 prefers functional classification over departmental classification. [Ref: Rule 78]

13. In the classification structure, Minor Heads identify
(a) programmes undertaken to achieve the objectives of the function
(b) the economic nature of expenditure
(c) schemes
(d) functions of Government
Ans. (a) programmes undertaken to achieve the objectives of the function — Explanation: Rule 78: Major Heads correspond to functions, Minor Heads to programmes, Sub Heads to schemes and Detailed Heads to sub-schemes. [Ref: Rule 78]

14. The Object Head represents
(a) the programme
(b) the primary unit of appropriation showing the economic nature of expenditure
(c) the function of Government
(d) the scheme
Ans. (b) the primary unit of appropriation showing the economic nature of expenditure — Explanation: Rule 78 gives examples such as salaries, office expenses and grants-in-aid. [Ref: Rule 78]

15. The six tiers of accounting classification are represented by a unique numeric code of
(a) 12 digits
(b) 10 digits
(c) 18 digits
(d) 15 digits
Ans. (d) 15 digits — Explanation: Rule 78 states the six tiers are represented by a unique 15-digit code. [Ref: Rule 78]

16. The authority to open a new Major or Minor Head of Account rests with
(a) the Controller General of Accounts, on the advice of the CAG
(b) each Ministry on its own
(c) the Reserve Bank
(d) Parliament
Ans. (a) the Controller General of Accounts, on the advice of the CAG — Explanation: Rule 79 vests this power in the Ministry of Finance (CGA) under Article 150 of the Constitution. [Ref: Rule 79]

17. Ministries/Departments may open Sub-Heads and Detailed Heads in consultation with
(a) Parliament
(b) the CAG
(c) the Budget Division of the Ministry of Finance
(d) the RBI
Ans. (c) the Budget Division of the Ministry of Finance — Explanation: Rule 79 allows Ministries to open Sub-Heads and Detailed Heads in consultation with the Budget Division. [Ref: Rule 79]

18. The power to amend Object Heads or open new Object Heads rests with
(a) the Department of Expenditure, on the advice of the CAG
(b) the Controller General of Accounts alone
(c) each Ministry
(d) the Lok Sabha
Ans. (a) the Department of Expenditure, on the advice of the CAG — Explanation: Rule 79 vests this power in the Department of Expenditure; Object Heads are prescribed under orders below Rule 8 of DFPR. [Ref: Rule 79]

19. In case of doubt regarding the Head under which a transaction should be accounted, the matter is referred to
(a) the Principal Accounts Officer of the Ministry/Department
(b) the vendor
(c) the Audit Officer
(d) the Head of Office
Ans. (a) the Principal Accounts Officer of the Ministry/Department — Explanation: Rule 82 directs reference to the Principal Accounts Officer, with clarification from MoF and CGA where necessary. [Ref: Rule 82]

20. Expenditure covered under Article 112(3) of the Constitution is
(a) charged on the Consolidated Fund and not subject to vote
(b) met from the Public Account
(c) met from the Contingency Fund
(d) voted by the Lok Sabha
Ans. (a) charged on the Consolidated Fund and not subject to vote — Explanation: Rule 83 defines charged expenditure; all other expenditure from the Consolidated Fund is voted. [Ref: Rule 83]

21. Significant expenditure incurred to acquire tangible assets of a permanent nature, not for sale in the ordinary course of business, is
(a) charged expenditure
(b) capital expenditure
(c) contingent expenditure
(d) revenue expenditure
Ans. (b) capital expenditure — Explanation: Rule 84 defines capital expenditure, including enhancing the utility of existing assets. [Ref: Rule 84]

22. Charges on maintenance, repair and upkeep to keep assets in running order are classified as
(a) revenue expenditure
(b) Public Account transactions
(c) charged expenditure
(d) capital expenditure
Ans. (a) revenue expenditure — Explanation: Rule 84 classifies such charges, and day-to-day running costs, as revenue expenditure. [Ref: Rule 84]

23. Budget Heads shown in estimates or appropriation orders must
(a) follow the vendor's invoice
(b) follow the State's classification
(c) conform to the prescribed rules of classification
(d) be chosen freely by each Ministry
Ans. (c) conform to the prescribed rules of classification — Explanation: Rule 80 requires conformity of budget heads with classification rules. [Ref: Rule 80]

24. Classification on challans crediting Government money into the bank is recorded by
(a) the departmental officers responsible for collection of Government dues
(b) the payer
(c) the Audit Officer
(d) the bank
Ans. (a) the departmental officers responsible for collection of Government dues — Explanation: Rule 82 places this duty on the departmental collecting officers, while Drawing Officers record classification on bills. [Ref: Rule 82]

25. Annual accounts record transactions taking place during the financial year running from
(a) 1st October to 30th September
(b) 1st April to 31st March
(c) 1st January to 31st December
(d) 1st July to 30th June
Ans. (b) 1st April to 31st March — Explanation: Rule 75 defines the period of accounts. [Ref: Rule 75]

Want all 1,200 GFR 2017 questions in one PDF? The GFR 2017 ebook has all 48 sets with answers, explanations, rule references and quick-revision tables of monetary limits, forms and time limits. Launch offer: ₹99 MRP ₹200. Get the ebook

Next: Set 10. See all sets under the label GFR 2017. For exam preparation, attempt the full set before checking answers and revise the topic of every question you miss.

These questions are prepared for practice from the General Financial Rules 2017 as updated by the Department of Expenditure up to 31.01.2026. Always check the latest Office Memorandums of the Department of Expenditure before relying on a limit or procedure.

Teaching Aptitude MCQ Set 30: Models of Teaching (25 Questions with Answers)

2026-10-29T12:00:00.000+05:30

This is Set 30 of 60 in the smartvidya question bank on Teaching Aptitude (UGC NET Paper 1, Unit I). Part IV: Methods of teaching. This set covers Joyce and Weil families, elements of a model and major models.

Try each question first, then tap Show answer to see the correct option, a short explanation and the source or topic reference. The questions are also useful for CTET, state TETs, SET and other teaching examinations.

Set 30: Models of Teaching

1. The book "Models of Teaching" (1972) was written by
(a) Jerome Bruner and Jean Piaget
(b) B.F. Skinner and Fred Keller
(c) Robert Glaser and Robert Gagne
(d) Bruce Joyce and Marsha Weil
Ans. (d) Bruce Joyce and Marsha Weil — Explanation: Joyce and Weil classified teaching models into families based on their goals and assumptions. [Ref: Joyce and Weil (1972)]

2. Joyce and Weil grouped models of teaching into how many families?
(a) Four
(b) Three
(c) Five
(d) Six
Ans. (a) Four — Explanation: The families are information processing, social, personal and behavioural systems. [Ref: Joyce and Weil, families of models]

3. The concept attainment model belongs to the
(a) information processing family
(b) personal family
(c) social family
(d) behavioural systems family
Ans. (a) information processing family — Explanation: It develops learners' ability to form and test concepts, which is information processing. [Ref: Joyce and Weil, families of models]

4. The concept attainment model is based on the work of
(a) Richard Suchman
(b) David Ausubel
(c) Jerome Bruner, Jacqueline Goodnow and George Austin
(d) Hilda Taba
Ans. (c) Jerome Bruner, Jacqueline Goodnow and George Austin — Explanation: It is derived from "A Study of Thinking" (1956) by Bruner, Goodnow and Austin. [Ref: Bruner, Goodnow and Austin (1956)]

5. The advance organiser model was developed by
(a) David Ausubel
(b) Carl Rogers
(c) Jerome Bruner
(d) Robert Gagne
Ans. (a) David Ausubel — Explanation: Ausubel proposed presenting an introductory framework before new material to aid meaningful learning. [Ref: Ausubel, advance organiser]

6. The inquiry training model was developed by
(a) Herbert Thelen
(b) Richard Suchman
(c) Joseph Schwab
(d) Hilda Taba
Ans. (b) Richard Suchman — Explanation: Suchman's model trains students to ask questions and build theories about puzzling events. [Ref: Suchman, inquiry training]

7. In Suchman's inquiry training model, students mainly ask questions that can be answered with
(a) a long essay
(b) "yes" or "no"
(c) numbers only
(d) a diagram only
Ans. (b) "yes" or "no" — Explanation: Students gather data about a discrepant event by asking yes–no questions. [Ref: Suchman, inquiry training]

8. The inductive thinking model is associated with
(a) William Gordon
(b) B.F. Skinner
(c) Carl Rogers
(d) Hilda Taba
Ans. (d) Hilda Taba — Explanation: Taba's model guides students to collect, organise and categorise data to form concepts. [Ref: Taba, inductive thinking]

9. The non-directive teaching model belongs to the personal family and was developed by
(a) Herbert Thelen
(b) Richard Suchman
(c) Carl Rogers
(d) David Ausubel
Ans. (c) Carl Rogers — Explanation: Rogers' model is based on client-centred counselling and treats the teacher as a facilitator. [Ref: Rogers, non-directive teaching]

10. Synectics, a model for developing creativity through metaphors and analogies, was developed by
(a) Edward de Bono
(b) Carl Rogers
(c) Alex Osborn
(d) William J.J. Gordon
Ans. (d) William J.J. Gordon — Explanation: Gordon's synectics uses direct, personal and compressed-conflict analogies. [Ref: Gordon, synectics]

11. The group investigation model, belonging to the social family, is associated with
(a) Hilda Taba
(b) Herbert Thelen
(c) Jerome Bruner
(d) David Ausubel
Ans. (b) Herbert Thelen — Explanation: Thelen's model combines democratic process with academic inquiry, drawing on Dewey. [Ref: Thelen, group investigation]

12. The jurisprudential inquiry model, used for examining public policy issues, was developed by
(a) Fannie and George Shaftel
(b) Bruce Joyce and Marsha Weil
(c) Donald Oliver and James Shaver
(d) Johnson and Johnson
Ans. (c) Donald Oliver and James Shaver — Explanation: The model helps students analyse public issues and take reasoned positions. [Ref: Oliver and Shaver, jurisprudential inquiry]

13. The biological science inquiry model is associated with
(a) William Gordon
(b) Richard Suchman
(c) Joseph Schwab
(d) Carl Rogers
Ans. (c) Joseph Schwab — Explanation: Schwab's model introduces students to the research methods of biology. [Ref: Schwab, biological science inquiry]

14. Which of the following belongs to the behavioural systems family?
(a) Group investigation
(b) Non-directive teaching
(c) Synectics
(d) Mastery learning and direct instruction
Ans. (d) Mastery learning and direct instruction — Explanation: Behavioural models use reinforcement, feedback and sequenced tasks to shape behaviour. [Ref: Joyce and Weil, families of models]

15. The "syntax" of a model of teaching refers to
(a) the evaluation of students
(b) the support materials required
(c) the grammar of the language used
(d) the sequence of phases or steps of the model
Ans. (d) the sequence of phases or steps of the model — Explanation: Syntax describes the model in action as a series of phases. [Ref: Joyce and Weil, elements of a model]

16. "Principles of reaction" in a model of teaching describe
(a) how the teacher should respond to learners' actions
(b) chemical reactions in science
(c) the reactions of examiners
(d) the school's response to parents
Ans. (a) how the teacher should respond to learners' actions — Explanation: They guide the teacher on how to regard and respond to what learners do. [Ref: Joyce and Weil, elements of a model]

17. "Support system" in a model of teaching means
(a) the support of parents only
(b) the additional requirements such as materials, skills and facilities needed to implement the model
(c) financial support for students
(d) the school's administration
Ans. (b) the additional requirements such as materials, skills and facilities needed to implement the model — Explanation: It includes resources and teacher capacities beyond normal classroom conditions. [Ref: Joyce and Weil, elements of a model]

18. The "social system" of a model describes
(a) the roles and relationships of teacher and students and the norms of the class
(b) the political system of the country
(c) society outside the school
(d) the economic status of students
Ans. (a) the roles and relationships of teacher and students and the norms of the class — Explanation: It specifies who controls activities and how teacher and students interact. [Ref: Joyce and Weil, elements of a model]

19. The effects of a model that are achieved directly through the content and skills taught are called
(a) side effects
(b) instructional effects
(c) nurturant effects
(d) placebo effects
Ans. (b) instructional effects — Explanation: Nurturant effects arise implicitly from the learning environment created by the model. [Ref: Joyce and Weil, elements of a model]

20. Which of the following is NOT one of the four families of models of teaching proposed by Joyce and Weil?
(a) Psychoanalytic family
(b) Behavioural systems family
(c) Social family
(d) Information processing family
Ans. (a) Psychoanalytic family — Explanation: The four families are information processing, social, personal and behavioural systems; there is no psychoanalytic family. [Ref: Joyce and Weil, families of models]

21. The advance organiser model is most suitable for
(a) developing physical skills
(b) teaching a large body of organised information meaningfully
(c) encouraging fantasy and metaphor
(d) counselling individuals
Ans. (b) teaching a large body of organised information meaningfully — Explanation: Organisers provide a conceptual framework that helps learners absorb structured content. [Ref: Ausubel, advance organiser]

22. Ausubel distinguished two types of advance organisers, namely
(a) formal and informal
(b) oral and written
(c) expository and comparative
(d) linear and branching
Ans. (c) expository and comparative — Explanation: Expository organisers introduce new content; comparative organisers relate it to familiar material. [Ref: Ausubel, advance organiser]

23. In the concept attainment model, students are shown
(a) only definitions to memorise
(b) no examples
(c) only the teacher's notes
(d) positive and negative examples of a concept and asked to identify its attributes
Ans. (d) positive and negative examples of a concept and asked to identify its attributes — Explanation: Comparing examples and non-examples helps students infer the essential attributes of a concept. [Ref: Concept attainment model]

24. Which model would be most suitable for developing creative writing through analogies?
(a) Advance organiser
(b) Programmed instruction
(c) Mastery learning
(d) Synectics
Ans. (d) Synectics — Explanation: Synectics uses analogies to break mental sets and promote creativity. [Ref: Gordon, synectics]

25. The personal family of models mainly focuses on
(a) memorisation
(b) social policy
(c) the development of the individual's self-concept, creativity and emotional growth
(d) drill and practice
Ans. (c) the development of the individual's self-concept, creativity and emotional growth — Explanation: Personal models emphasise individual growth and self-understanding. [Ref: Joyce and Weil, families of models]

Want all 1,500 Teaching Aptitude questions in one PDF? The Teaching Aptitude ebook has all 60 sets with answers, explanations and quick-revision tables of thinkers, models, taxonomies and key facts. Launch offer: ₹99 MRP ₹200. Get the ebook

Next: Set 31. See all sets under the label Teaching Aptitude. For exam preparation, attempt the full set before checking answers and revise the topic of every question you miss.

These questions are prepared for practice from standard textbooks, the UGC NET Paper 1 syllabus and official sources on Indian education schemes. Check the latest notifications for dates and figures of government schemes before an examination.

CCS (Conduct) Rules MCQ Set 26: Rule 17 – Insolvency and habitual indebtedness (25 Questions with Answers)

2026-10-29T09:00:00.000+05:30

This is Set 26 of 42 in the smartvidya question bank on the Central Civil Services (Conduct) Rules, 1964. Part VI: Investment, debt and property. This set covers Rule 17, the duty to report legal proceedings, the burden-of-proof Note, and applying Rules 16 and 17 together.

Try each question first, then tap Show answer to see the correct option, a short explanation and the rule reference. The gift limits in Rule 13(3) are as revised in 2019, and share-trading intimation follows the DoPT OM of 07.02.2019.

Set 26: Rule 17 – Insolvency and habitual indebtedness

1. Rule 17 of the CCS (Conduct) Rules deals with:
(a) Insolvency and habitual indebtedness
(b) Vindication of acts
(c) Movable property
(d) Investment, lending and borrowing
Ans. (a) Insolvency and habitual indebtedness — Explanation: Rule 17 requires a Government servant to manage his private affairs so as to avoid habitual indebtedness or insolvency. [Ref: Rule 17]

2. Under Rule 17, a Government servant shall so manage his private affairs as to avoid:
(a) Owning property
(b) Investing in shares
(c) Habitual indebtedness or insolvency
(d) Any loan whatsoever
Ans. (c) Habitual indebtedness or insolvency — Explanation: Rule 17 targets habitual indebtedness and insolvency, not borrowing as such. [Ref: Rule 17]

3. When must a Government servant report under Rule 17?
(a) Only when his salary is attached
(b) When any legal proceeding is instituted against him for recovery of a debt or for adjudging him insolvent
(c) Only when he is declared insolvent
(d) Whenever he takes any loan
Ans. (b) When any legal proceeding is instituted against him for recovery of a debt or for adjudging him insolvent — Explanation: Rule 17 requires a report when legal proceedings are instituted for recovery of a debt due from him or for adjudging him insolvent. [Ref: Rule 17]

4. To whom and when must the report under Rule 17 be made?
(a) To the Government, forthwith, with the full facts of the legal proceeding
(b) To the Head of Office, within three months
(c) To the bank, forthwith
(d) To the court, within one month
Ans. (a) To the Government, forthwith, with the full facts of the legal proceeding — Explanation: Rule 17 says he shall forthwith report the full facts of the legal proceeding to the Government. [Ref: Rule 17]

5. According to the Note under Rule 17, the burden of proving that insolvency or indebtedness arose from unforeseeable circumstances is on:
(a) The disciplinary authority
(b) The court
(c) The creditor
(d) The Government servant
Ans. (d) The Government servant — Explanation: The Note places the burden of proof on the Government servant. [Ref: Rule 17, Note]

6. What must the Government servant prove, under the Note to Rule 17, to escape blame for his indebtedness?
(a) That he repaid the loan within one year
(b) That it resulted from circumstances he could not have foreseen with ordinary diligence or over which he had no control, and not from extravagant or dissipated habits
(c) That the debt is below two months' basic pay
(d) That the creditor was unlicensed
Ans. (b) That it resulted from circumstances he could not have foreseen with ordinary diligence or over which he had no control, and not from extravagant or dissipated habits — Explanation: The Note requires proof that the indebtedness resulted from unforeseeable or uncontrollable circumstances and did not proceed from extravagant or dissipated habits. [Ref: Rule 17, Note]

7. A bank files a recovery suit against a Government servant for an unpaid personal loan. What must he do under Rule 17?
(a) Seek sanction to defend the suit
(b) Forthwith report the full facts of the proceeding to the Government
(c) Nothing, since it is a private matter
(d) Resign
Ans. (b) Forthwith report the full facts of the proceeding to the Government — Explanation: The duty to report arises as soon as a legal proceeding for recovery of a debt is instituted. [Ref: Rule 17]

8. A Government servant runs up large debts due to gambling and is sued by several creditors. How is this likely to be viewed under Rule 17?
(a) As permitted if he eventually repays
(b) As a private matter outside the Conduct Rules
(c) As habitual indebtedness arising from dissipated habits, which is misconduct
(d) As misconduct only if he is declared insolvent
Ans. (c) As habitual indebtedness arising from dissipated habits, which is misconduct — Explanation: Rule 17 requires managing private affairs to avoid habitual indebtedness, and the Note makes debts from extravagant or dissipated habits his responsibility. [Ref: Rule 17]

9. A Government servant is sued for recovery of hospital bills after an unforeseen serious illness in the family. Which statement is correct?
(a) He must seek previous sanction to contest the suit
(b) He is automatically guilty of misconduct
(c) He must still report the proceeding, but may show that the debt arose from circumstances beyond his control
(d) He need not report, since the illness was genuine
Ans. (c) He must still report the proceeding, but may show that the debt arose from circumstances beyond his control — Explanation: The duty to report applies in all cases. The Note allows him to prove that the indebtedness arose from circumstances beyond his control. [Ref: Rule 17, Note]

10. Consider these statements about Rule 17: 1. A single loan from a bank is a breach. 2. A legal proceeding for adjudging him insolvent must be reported. 3. The burden of proving unforeseeable circumstances is on the Government servant. Which are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (b) 2 and 3 only — Explanation: Rule 17 targets habitual indebtedness or insolvency, not a single bank loan. The duty to report insolvency proceedings and the burden of proof are correctly stated. [Ref: Rule 17]

11. For non-gazetted staff drawing up to Rs. 500 per mensem in a Central Government factory, which of these rules is lifted by the second proviso to Rule 1(3)?
(a) Rule 17
(b) Rule 13
(c) Rule 22
(d) Rule 16
Ans. (d) Rule 16 — Explanation: Rule 16 is among the rules excluded for such staff. Rule 17 is not in the list, so it still applies. [Ref: Rule 1(3), second proviso]

12. Which word in Rule 17 shows that occasional borrowing is not in itself misconduct?
(a) Full
(b) Legal
(c) Forthwith
(d) Habitual
Ans. (d) Habitual — Explanation: Rule 17 speaks of "habitual indebtedness". Occasional, managed borrowing is not what the rule targets. [Ref: Rule 17]

13. A Government servant borrows repeatedly from colleagues and does not repay, leading to several complaints. Which rules are relevant?
(a) Only Rule 18 on property
(b) No rule, since colleagues are not creditors in law
(c) Rule 17 on habitual indebtedness, and Rule 16(4) if loans involve interest or persons with dealings
(d) Only Rule 13 on gifts
Ans. (c) Rule 17 on habitual indebtedness, and Rule 16(4) if loans involve interest or persons with dealings — Explanation: Repeated borrowing without repayment points to habitual indebtedness under Rule 17; Rule 16(4) applies where the lenders are within his jurisdiction or interest is involved. [Ref: Rules 16(4), 17]

14. A Government servant's personal creditor obtains a court decree and attaches part of his salary. Under Rule 17, the Government servant should have:
(a) Reported the legal proceeding forthwith when it was instituted
(b) Reported only after the attachment
(c) Informed only his family
(d) Obtained sanction before the decree
Ans. (a) Reported the legal proceeding forthwith when it was instituted — Explanation: The duty to report arises when the proceeding is instituted, not later at the stage of attachment. [Ref: Rule 17]

15. Which of these is required under Rule 17 but NOT under Rule 16?
(a) Report on transfer to a sensitive post
(b) Previous sanction for lending at interest
(c) No speculation in shares
(d) Forthwith report of legal proceedings for recovery of debt or insolvency
Ans. (d) Forthwith report of legal proceedings for recovery of debt or insolvency — Explanation: The duty to report debt recovery or insolvency proceedings is specific to Rule 17; the others belong to Rule 16 of the Conduct Rules. [Ref: Rules 16, 17]

16. Which of these acts breaches Rule 16 rather than Rule 17?
(a) Being sued by a bank for recovery of an overdue personal loan
(b) Failing to report a recovery suit
(c) Being adjudged insolvent
(d) Borrowing from a trader within the local limits of his authority
Ans. (d) Borrowing from a trader within the local limits of his authority — Explanation: Borrowing from a person within the local limits of his authority is barred by Rule 16(4)(i)(a). The other three are matters of Rule 17 of the Conduct Rules. [Ref: Rule 16(4)(i)(a); Rule 17]

17. Mr Joseph, a Group 'B' officer, trades shares daily using a large personal loan from a private finance company in his jurisdiction. Which rules are breached?
(a) Rule 16(1) on speculation and Rule 16(4)(i)(a) on borrowing from a party in his jurisdiction
(b) No rule, if he makes profits
(c) Only Rule 17
(d) Only Rule 18(3)
Ans. (a) Rule 16(1) on speculation and Rule 16(4)(i)(a) on borrowing from a party in his jurisdiction — Explanation: Daily trading is speculation under Rule 16(1), and borrowing from a private finance company within his jurisdiction is barred by Rule 16(4)(i)(a). [Ref: Rule 16(1), (4)]

18. Why does Rule 17 regard insolvency as a matter of concern for the Government?
(a) Because the Government guarantees all loans of its servants
(b) A Government servant in financial distress may be vulnerable to temptation and influence
(c) Because insolvency affects his pension
(d) Because courts require it
Ans. (b) A Government servant in financial distress may be vulnerable to temptation and influence — Explanation: Financial distress can make a Government servant vulnerable to corruption and pressure, which is why the rules require prudent management of private affairs. [Ref: Rule 17]

19. What is the correct sequence of action under Rule 17 if a creditor sues a Government servant?
(a) Report full facts forthwith to the Government; if indebtedness is questioned, prove it arose from causes beyond his control
(b) Seek sanction to be sued; then report
(c) Wait for the decree; then inform the Head of Office
(d) Settle privately; no report needed
Ans. (a) Report full facts forthwith to the Government; if indebtedness is questioned, prove it arose from causes beyond his control — Explanation: He must report forthwith. If the Government examines his conduct, the Note puts the burden on him to prove the debt did not arise from extravagant or dissipated habits. [Ref: Rule 17]

20. The phrase "forthwith report" appears in Rule 17 in connection with:
(a) Legal proceedings for recovery of debt or adjudging insolvency
(b) Marriage with a foreigner
(c) Acceptance of gifts
(d) Purchase of movable property
Ans. (a) Legal proceedings for recovery of debt or adjudging insolvency — Explanation: Rule 17 requires a forthwith report of the full facts of such legal proceedings. Rule 21(3) also uses "forthwith" for marriage with a person not of Indian nationality. [Ref: Rule 17]

21. A Government servant stands guarantee for a friend's bank loan. The friend defaults and the bank sues the Government servant as guarantor. Under Rule 17:
(a) He must resign as guarantor
(b) He need not report, since he was only a guarantor
(c) He must report the proceeding, since it is for recovery of a debt due from him
(d) He must seek previous sanction
Ans. (c) He must report the proceeding, since it is for recovery of a debt due from him — Explanation: A suit to recover a debt due from him as guarantor is a legal proceeding for recovery of a debt, which must be reported forthwith. [Ref: Rule 17]

22. Which Conduct Rule would require a Government servant to report if he is made a party in insolvency proceedings in a court?
(a) Rule 19
(b) Rule 16(4)(ii)
(c) Rule 17
(d) Rule 18(4)
Ans. (c) Rule 17 — Explanation: Rule 17 covers proceedings for adjudging a Government servant as an insolvent. [Ref: Rule 17]

23. "Extravagant or dissipated habits" are relevant under Rule 17 because:
(a) They require sanction under Rule 16
(b) They must be reported under Rule 18
(c) They are separately punishable under Rule 22
(d) Indebtedness resulting from them cannot be excused
Ans. (d) Indebtedness resulting from them cannot be excused — Explanation: The Note says the Government servant must show that his indebtedness has not proceeded from extravagant or dissipated habits. [Ref: Rule 17, Note]

24. A Government servant takes a personal loan from a scheduled bank to fund his child's education and repays it regularly. Is there any breach of Rule 16 or 17?
(a) No, a bank loan in the ordinary course of business managed prudently breaches neither rule
(b) Yes, Rule 16(4), since he borrowed money
(c) Yes, Rule 17, since any loan is indebtedness
(d) Yes, both rules
Ans. (a) No, a bank loan in the ordinary course of business managed prudently breaches neither rule — Explanation: Bank transactions in the ordinary course are outside Rule 16(4), and a well-managed loan is not habitual indebtedness under Rule 17 of the Conduct Rules. [Ref: Rules 16(4), 17]

25. The Note under Rule 17 deals mainly with:
(a) The authority who can sanction loans
(b) The burden of proof regarding the causes of insolvency or indebtedness
(c) The time limit for reporting a loan
(d) The amount of debt that is permitted
Ans. (b) The burden of proof regarding the causes of insolvency or indebtedness — Explanation: The Note says the burden of proving that insolvency or indebtedness arose from circumstances beyond the Government servant's control, and not from extravagant or dissipated habits, lies on him. [Ref: Rule 17, Note]

Want all 1,050 questions in one PDF? The CCS (Conduct) Rules ebook has every set with answers, explanations, rule references and quick-revision tables. Get the ebook

Next: Set 27. See all sets under the label CCS Conduct Rules. For exam preparation, attempt the full set before checking answers and note the rule number of every question you miss.

These questions are prepared for practice from the text of the CCS (Conduct) Rules, 1964 and related Government of India instructions. Always check the latest DoPT orders before relying on any point for official decisions.

DFPR 2024 MCQs with Answers – Set 27: General Conditions for Incurring Expenditure – Part 1

2026-10-29T06:00:00.000+05:30

Multiple choice questions on the Delegation of Financial Powers Rules, 2024 (DFPR 2024) with answers and explanations. This is Set 27 of 44, covering Annexure-II, paras (1)–(6). Each set has 25 questions. Try each question first, then tap Show answer to check your answer and read the explanation.

Source: Delegation of Financial Powers Rules, 2024 (Ministry of Finance, Department of Expenditure, notification S.O. 1543(E) dated 22.03.2024) and the Government of India decisions, appendices and related orders printed in the official DFPR 2024 booklet.

1. As per Annexure-II, the powers delegated to the Departments are exercised by
(a) Oral orders of the Secretary
(b) Notification in the Gazette in every case
(c) Resolutions of the Cabinet
(d) Issue of formal sanctions in the name of the President
Ans. (d) Issue of formal sanctions in the name of the President — Explanation: Para (1) of Annexure-II states that the powers delegated to the Departments are to be exercised by the issue of formal sanctions in the name of the President, authenticated by officers authorised under Article 77. [Ref: Annexure-II, para (1)]

2. Under para (2) of Annexure-II, the powers are exercised subject to rules, orders or restrictions issued by
(a) The C&AG only
(b) NITI Aayog only
(c) The Finance Ministry and other nodal Ministries or Departments
(d) The State Governments
Ans. (c) The Finance Ministry and other nodal Ministries or Departments — Explanation: Para (2) says the powers are to be exercised subject to rules, orders or restrictions issued by the Finance Ministry and other nodal Ministries/Departments from time to time. [Ref: Annexure-II, para (2)]

3. Para (2) of Annexure-II requires the financial limits to be in accordance with
(a) Only the Income Tax Act
(b) Only the Companies Act
(c) Only the Constitution
(d) GFR, FRs and SRs, economy instructions of the Finance Ministry, Fiscal Codes and procedures, and within the budgetary allocation for the year
Ans. (d) GFR, FRs and SRs, economy instructions of the Finance Ministry, Fiscal Codes and procedures, and within the budgetary allocation for the year — Explanation: Para (2) lists the GFR, Fundamental Rules & Supplementary Rules, economy instructions, Fiscal Codes and procedures, and the limit being within the budgetary allocation for the year. [Ref: Annexure-II, para (2)]

4. Expenditure already incurred under an emergent situation by an authority in excess of its powers is treated as
(a) Regular expenditure
(b) Irregular expenditure
(c) Fraudulent expenditure
(d) Charged expenditure
Ans. (b) Irregular expenditure — Explanation: Para (3) states that such expenditure should be treated as irregular expenditure. [Ref: Annexure-II, para (3)]

5. Irregular expenditure incurred under emergent situations should be regularised by
(a) An ex-post facto sanction with the concurrence of the Financial Adviser and approval of the Administrative Secretary
(b) The C&AG's approval
(c) A Supplementary Demand for Grants
(d) A Cabinet decision in every case
Ans. (a) An ex-post facto sanction with the concurrence of the Financial Adviser and approval of the Administrative Secretary — Explanation: Para (3) provides that such irregular expenditure should be regularised by an ex-post facto sanction with the concurrence of FA and approval of the Administrative Secretary. [Ref: Annexure-II, para (3)]

6. The power to regularise irregular expenditure incurred in emergent situations should NOT be exercised in respect of
(a) Minor works
(b) Travel expenses
(c) Areas where powers vest with the Cabinet
(d) Office expenses
Ans. (c) Areas where powers vest with the Cabinet — Explanation: Para (3) states that these powers should not be exercised in respect of areas where powers vest with the Cabinet. [Ref: Annexure-II, para (3)]

7. Under para (4) of Annexure-II, subordinate authorities can exercise, in respect of capital expenditure,
(a) Double the powers for revenue expenditure
(b) Only powers approved by Parliament
(c) No powers at all
(d) The same financial powers as for revenue expenditure, unless specifically restricted to revenue expenditure by the Department
Ans. (d) The same financial powers as for revenue expenditure, unless specifically restricted to revenue expenditure by the Department — Explanation: Para (4) states that subordinate authorities can exercise the same financial powers for capital expenditure as for revenue expenditure, except where powers are specifically restricted to revenue expenditure by the Department. [Ref: Annexure-II, para (4)]

8. An officer appointed to perform the current duties of a post in addition to his own
(a) Can exercise the financial powers vested in the full-fledged incumbent of the post
(b) Can exercise powers only with FA approval
(c) Can exercise only half the powers
(d) Cannot exercise any financial powers
Ans. (a) Can exercise the financial powers vested in the full-fledged incumbent of the post — Explanation: Para (5) states that an officer appointed to perform the current duties of a post in addition to his own can exercise financial powers vested in the full-fledged incumbent of the post. [Ref: Annexure-II, para (5)]

9. In exercising powers to sanction unusual expenditure, Departments should
(a) Sanction freely within the budget
(b) Exercise due care and restrict the growth of expenditure on new lines or new types of items
(c) Always refer the matter to Parliament
(d) Seek the C&AG's approval
Ans. (b) Exercise due care and restrict the growth of expenditure on new lines or new types of items — Explanation: Para (6) asks Departments to exercise due care and restrict the growth of expenditure on new lines or new types of items when sanctioning unusual expenditure. [Ref: Annexure-II, para (6)]

10. Formal sanctions in the name of the President are authenticated by officers authorised under
(a) Article 77 of the Constitution
(b) Article 53 of the Constitution
(c) Article 74 of the Constitution
(d) Article 311 of the Constitution
Ans. (a) Article 77 of the Constitution — Explanation: Para (1) of Annexure-II refers to authentication by officers authorised to do so under Article 77 of the Constitution. [Ref: Annexure-II, para (1)]

11. A Joint Secretary holding current charge of the post of Additional Secretary can exercise
(a) Only the powers of a Joint Secretary
(b) No financial powers during the current charge
(c) The financial powers of the Additional Secretary post
(d) Powers only with the Minister's approval
Ans. (c) The financial powers of the Additional Secretary post — Explanation: Para (5) states that an officer performing the current duties of a post in addition to his own can exercise the financial powers vested in the full-fledged incumbent of that post. [Ref: Annexure-II, para (5)]

12. During a flood, an officer spent beyond his delegated power to restore essential services. The correct course under Annexure-II is
(a) Treat it as regular since it was an emergency
(b) Recover the entire amount from the officer
(c) Seek Parliament's approval
(d) Treat it as irregular expenditure and regularise it by an ex-post facto sanction with FA concurrence and approval of the Administrative Secretary
Ans. (d) Treat it as irregular expenditure and regularise it by an ex-post facto sanction with FA concurrence and approval of the Administrative Secretary — Explanation: Para (3) treats expenditure incurred in an emergent situation in excess of powers as irregular, to be regularised by ex-post facto sanction with FA concurrence and approval of the Administrative Secretary. [Ref: Annexure-II, para (3)]

13. Which para of Annexure-II deals with renting of buildings for office accommodation and residential purposes?
(a) Para (10)
(b) Para (9)
(c) Para (7)
(d) Para (8)
Ans. (b) Para (9) — Explanation: Para (9) of Annexure-II deals with renting of buildings for office and residential purposes. Para (10) deals with land acquisition. [Ref: Annexure-II, para (9)]

14. How many paras of General Conditions are there in Annexure-II?
(a) Eleven
(b) Seven
(c) Thirteen
(d) Nine
Ans. (a) Eleven — Explanation: Annexure-II contains eleven paras, (1) to (11), from issue of formal sanctions to review of re-delegations. [Ref: Annexure-II]

15. The distinction in powers between revenue and capital expenditure for subordinate authorities is that
(a) Normally there is none, unless the Department specifically restricts a power to revenue expenditure
(b) Revenue powers need Parliament's approval
(c) Capital powers are always half of revenue powers
(d) Capital powers need Cabinet approval
Ans. (a) Normally there is none, unless the Department specifically restricts a power to revenue expenditure — Explanation: Para (4) states that subordinate authorities can exercise the same powers for capital as for revenue expenditure, except where specifically restricted by the Department. [Ref: Annexure-II, para (4)]

16. Annexure-II requires financial limits to be within
(a) The previous year's actuals
(b) 20% above the budget
(c) The budgetary allocation for the year
(d) The Contingency Fund
Ans. (c) The budgetary allocation for the year — Explanation: Para (2) ends with the condition that the limit be within the budgetary allocation for the year. [Ref: Annexure-II, para (2)]

17. Ex-post facto sanction for emergent irregular expenditure requires approval of the
(a) Administrative Secretary
(b) Minister of State
(c) Joint Secretary
(d) Head of Office
Ans. (a) Administrative Secretary — Explanation: Para (3) requires concurrence of the Financial Adviser and approval of the Administrative Secretary. [Ref: Annexure-II, para (3)]

18. Annexure-II is titled
(a) General Conditions for incurring expenditure
(b) Institutional arrangement for appraisal
(c) Financial limits for New Service
(d) List of Object Heads
Ans. (a) General Conditions for incurring expenditure — Explanation: Annexure-II (See Rule 12) is titled "General Conditions for incurring expenditure". [Ref: Annexure-II]

19. The economy instructions subject to which delegated powers are exercised are issued by
(a) The Department of Personnel and Training
(b) The C&AG
(c) The Finance Ministry
(d) The Estimates Committee
Ans. (c) The Finance Ministry — Explanation: Para (2) refers to "economy instructions issued by Finance Ministry". [Ref: Annexure-II, para (2)]

20. Which of the following statements about Annexure-II para (3) is correct?
(a) It requires the C&AG's approval
(b) It prohibits any regularisation
(c) It permits regularisation of emergent excess expenditure only outside areas where powers vest with the Cabinet
(d) It permits regularisation of all expenditure, including Cabinet matters
Ans. (c) It permits regularisation of emergent excess expenditure only outside areas where powers vest with the Cabinet — Explanation: Para (3) permits ex-post facto regularisation with FA concurrence and Administrative Secretary's approval, but not in areas where powers vest with the Cabinet. [Ref: Annexure-II, para (3)]

21. Rule 12(6) and Annexure-II para (3) together show that DFPR 2024
(a) Requires Parliament to validate every action
(b) Allows validation or regularisation of actions taken without competence, subject to conditions
(c) Never allows regularisation
(d) Transfers validation to audit
Ans. (b) Allows validation or regularisation of actions taken without competence, subject to conditions — Explanation: Rule 12(6) allows delegated powers to validate actions taken without competence at the time, and para (3) of Annexure-II provides for ex-post facto regularisation of emergent irregular expenditure. [Ref: Rule 12(6); Annexure-II, para (3)]

22. "Unusual expenditure" referred to in Annexure-II para (6) calls for
(a) Automatic approval
(b) Due care and restraint on growth of expenditure on new lines or new types of items
(c) Approval of Parliament in every case
(d) Approval of the President in every case
Ans. (b) Due care and restraint on growth of expenditure on new lines or new types of items — Explanation: Para (6) asks Departments to exercise due care in sanctioning unusual expenditure and restrict the growth of expenditure on new lines or new types of items. [Ref: Annexure-II, para (6)]

23. Which rules are specifically mentioned in Annexure-II para (2) besides GFR?
(a) Service Rules of States
(b) Railway Establishment Rules
(c) Fundamental Rules & Supplementary Rules
(d) Defence Regulations
Ans. (c) Fundamental Rules & Supplementary Rules — Explanation: Para (2) refers to GFR, Fundamental Rules & Supplementary Rules, economy instructions and Fiscal Codes. [Ref: Annexure-II, para (2)]

24. Annexure-II para (1) applies to powers delegated to
(a) The Departments of the Government of India
(b) State Governments
(c) Local bodies
(d) Public Sector Undertakings
Ans. (a) The Departments of the Government of India — Explanation: Para (1) begins "The powers delegated to the Departments of the Government of India are to be exercised by the issue of formal sanctions in the name of the President". [Ref: Annexure-II, para (1)]

25. A Department restricts a subordinate authority's power to revenue expenditure only. Under Annexure-II para (4), that authority
(a) Cannot exercise the same power for capital expenditure
(b) Can exercise double the power for capital expenditure
(c) Must seek Parliament's approval
(d) Can still exercise it for capital expenditure
Ans. (a) Cannot exercise the same power for capital expenditure — Explanation: Para (4) allows the same powers for capital as for revenue expenditure "except in case of those items where the powers may be specifically restricted to revenue expenditure" by the Department. [Ref: Annexure-II, para (4)]

Want all 1,100 DFPR 2024 questions in one PDF? The DFPR 2024 ebook has all 44 sets with answers, explanations, rule references and quick-revision tables of key financial limits. Launch offer: ₹99 MRP ₹200. Get the ebook

What next? Continue with DFPR 2024 MCQs – Set 28. All sets are listed under the label DFPR 2024.

CCS (CCA) Rules MCQ Set 7: Suspension III: Continuance, Review and Time Limits (25 Questions with Answers)

2026-10-28T21:00:00.000+05:30

This is Set 7 of 40 in the smartvidya question bank on the Central Civil Services (Classification, Control and Appeal) Rules, 1965, with the latest amendments and DoPT instructions. Part II: Suspension. This set covers Rule 10(5), (6), (7): review committee, 90 days, 180 days extensions, 2022 provisos (270 days / two years without charge sheet), Ajay Kumar Choudhary 2015.

Try each question first, then tap Show answer to see the correct option, a short explanation and the section or rule reference. The questions are useful for departmental and promotion examinations, for disciplinary authorities, inquiring and presenting officers, and vigilance staff.

Set 7: Suspension III: Continuance, Review and Time Limits

1. Under Rule 10(5)(a), how long does an order of suspension continue in force?
(a) Until the Government servant makes a representation
(b) For a fixed period of one year
(c) Until the end of the financial year
(d) Until it is modified or revoked by the competent authority, subject to Rule 10(7)
Ans. (d) Until it is modified or revoked by the competent authority, subject to Rule 10(7) — Explanation: Rule 10(5)(a) keeps the order in force until modified or revoked, subject to the 90-day validity condition in Rule 10(7). [Ref: Rule 10(5)(a)]

2. A suspended Government servant faces a fresh disciplinary proceeding started during his suspension. What may the competent authority do under Rule 10(5)(b)?
(a) Revoke the first suspension and issue a new one
(b) Direct, for reasons recorded in writing, that he continue under suspension until the termination of all or any of such proceedings
(c) Nothing, since a person can be suspended for only one proceeding
(d) Issue a second suspension order running consecutively
Ans. (b) Direct, for reasons recorded in writing, that he continue under suspension until the termination of all or any of such proceedings — Explanation: Rule 10(5)(b) permits continuation of suspension until the termination of all or any of the proceedings, with reasons recorded in writing. [Ref: Rule 10(5)(b)]

3. Under Rule 10(5)(c), which authority may modify or revoke an order of suspension at any time?
(a) The authority which made or is deemed to have made the order, or any authority to which it is subordinate
(b) Any authority subordinate to the one that made the order
(c) Only the Review Committee
(d) Only the President
Ans. (a) The authority which made or is deemed to have made the order, or any authority to which it is subordinate — Explanation: Rule 10(5)(c) vests the power in the authority that made or is deemed to have made the order or any authority superior to it. [Ref: Rule 10(5)(c)]

4. Under Rule 10(6), within what time must an order of suspension be reviewed?
(a) Before the expiry of one year from the order
(b) Within one hundred and eighty days of the order
(c) Before the expiry of ninety days from the effective date of suspension
(d) Within thirty days of the order
Ans. (c) Before the expiry of ninety days from the effective date of suspension — Explanation: Rule 10(6) requires review by the competent authority before the expiry of ninety days from the effective date of suspension. [Ref: Rule 10(6)]

5. On whose recommendation does the competent authority review a suspension under Rule 10(6)?
(a) A Review Committee constituted for the purpose
(b) The Central Vigilance Commission
(c) The Union Public Service Commission
(d) The inquiring authority
Ans. (a) A Review Committee constituted for the purpose — Explanation: Rule 10(6) provides that the review is made on the recommendation of the Review Committee constituted for the purpose. [Ref: Rule 10(6)]

6. After a review under Rule 10(6), for what maximum period at a time may suspension be extended?
(a) Ninety days
(b) One year
(c) Two years
(d) One hundred and eighty days
Ans. (d) One hundred and eighty days — Explanation: Rule 10(6) states that an extension of suspension shall not be for a period exceeding one hundred and eighty days at a time. [Ref: Rule 10(6)]

7. What does Rule 10(7) provide about an order of suspension made or deemed under Rule 10(1) or 10(2)?
(a) It shall not be valid after ninety days unless extended after review before the expiry of ninety days
(b) It remains valid indefinitely until revoked
(c) It lapses after one hundred and eighty days in every case
(d) It must be confirmed by the UPSC within ninety days
Ans. (a) It shall not be valid after ninety days unless extended after review before the expiry of ninety days — Explanation: Rule 10(7) makes the order invalid after ninety days unless it is extended after a review held before the ninety days expire. [Ref: Rule 10(7)]

8. A Government servant was suspended on 1 January under Rule 10(1)(a). No review was held within ninety days. What is the consequence?
(a) The suspension ceases to be valid after ninety days and cannot be extended by a later review
(b) The suspension is automatically extended by one hundred and eighty days
(c) The suspension continues until a review is held
(d) The suspension converts into deemed suspension
Ans. (a) The suspension ceases to be valid after ninety days and cannot be extended by a later review — Explanation: Under Rule 10(7) an order not extended after review before the ninety days expire is not valid thereafter; a belated review cannot revive it. [Ref: Rule 10(6) and 10(7)]

9. A suspension is reviewed on the eightieth day and extended by one hundred and eighty days. When must the next review take place?
(a) Before the expiry of the extended period
(b) No further review is required after the first extension
(c) Only when the charge-sheet is issued
(d) Within ninety days of the first review
Ans. (a) Before the expiry of the extended period — Explanation: Rule 10(6) requires subsequent reviews to be made before the expiry of the extended period of suspension. [Ref: Rule 10(6)]

10. In the case of deemed suspension under Rule 10(2) where the Government servant remains in custody, how is the ninety-day period counted under the first proviso to Rule 10(7)?
(a) From the date of the first remand order
(b) From the date of release from detention or the date of intimation of release to the appointing authority, whichever is later
(c) From the date of arrest
(d) From the date the department learns of the arrest
Ans. (b) From the date of release from detention or the date of intimation of release to the appointing authority, whichever is later — Explanation: No review is needed while he continues in custody; the ninety days run from release or the intimation of release to the appointing authority, whichever is later. [Ref: Rule 10(7), first proviso]

11. Under the second proviso to Rule 10(7) inserted in 2022, where no charge-sheet has been issued, what is the maximum total period of suspension ordered under Rule 10(1)(a)?
(a) Two years
(b) Two hundred and seventy days from the date of the suspension order
(c) One year
(d) One hundred and eighty days
Ans. (b) Two hundred and seventy days from the date of the suspension order — Explanation: The second proviso caps suspension under Rule 10(1)(a), including extensions, at two hundred and seventy days where no charge-sheet has been issued. [Ref: Rule 10(7), second proviso]

12. Where no charge-sheet has been issued, what is the maximum total period of suspension ordered under Rule 10(1)(aa) or Rule 10(1)(b)?
(a) Ninety days
(b) Three years
(c) Two years from the date of the suspension order
(d) Two hundred and seventy days
Ans. (c) Two years from the date of the suspension order — Explanation: For suspension on security grounds or a pending criminal case, the second proviso allows up to two years in total where no charge-sheet has been issued. [Ref: Rule 10(7), second proviso]

13. Where no charge-sheet has been issued, for how long may deemed suspension under Rule 10(2) continue in total?
(a) Two hundred and seventy days from the date of arrest
(b) Ninety days from the date of release
(c) Two years from the date of arrest
(d) Two years from the date of release from detention or the date of intimation of release, whichever is later
Ans. (d) Two years from the date of release from detention or the date of intimation of release, whichever is later — Explanation: The second proviso limits such deemed suspension to two years counted from release or intimation of release to the appointing authority, whichever is later. [Ref: Rule 10(7), second proviso]

14. A Government servant suspended under Rule 10(1)(a) has had his suspension extended after review, but no charge-sheet has been issued even after two hundred and seventy days. What must happen?
(a) It continues until the inquiry report is received
(b) The suspension cannot continue beyond two hundred and seventy days and must end
(c) It may be extended for another one hundred and eighty days
(d) It converts automatically into suspension under Rule 10(1)(b)
Ans. (b) The suspension cannot continue beyond two hundred and seventy days and must end — Explanation: The 2022 proviso sets an outer limit of two hundred and seventy days, including extensions, for such suspension where no charge-sheet is issued. [Ref: Rule 10(7), second proviso]

15. In which year were the provisos capping the total period of suspension without a charge-sheet inserted in Rule 10(7)?
(a) 2017
(b) 2022
(c) 2014
(d) 2026
Ans. (b) 2022 — Explanation: The CCS (CCA) Amendment Rules, 2022 notified in October 2022 substituted the proviso to Rule 10(7) with two provisos including these caps. [Ref: CCS (CCA) Amendment Rules, 2022]

16. What did the Supreme Court hold in Ajay Kumar Choudhary v Union of India (2015) about the currency of suspension?
(a) It must be approved by the Supreme Court in every case
(b) It should not extend beyond three months if the memorandum of charges is not served within that period
(c) It may continue indefinitely while the investigation is pending
(d) It must end after six months even if a charge-sheet has been served
Ans. (b) It should not extend beyond three months if the memorandum of charges is not served within that period — Explanation: The Court held that suspension should not extend beyond three months without service of the charge memo; if served, a reasoned order is needed for extension. [Ref: Ajay Kumar Choudhary v Union of India (2015) 7 SCC 291]

17. According to Ajay Kumar Choudhary (2015), what may the Government do instead of prolonging suspension where it fears the officer may influence witnesses?
(a) Withhold his subsistence allowance
(b) Keep him under suspension without any review
(c) Dismiss him without inquiry
(d) Transfer him to another office or department to sever his local links
Ans. (d) Transfer him to another office or department to sever his local links — Explanation: The Court observed that the Government is free to transfer the person to any department or office to sever links with the witnesses and the case. [Ref: Ajay Kumar Choudhary v Union of India (2015)]

18. According to DoPT instructions, where a Government servant is suspended because disciplinary proceedings are contemplated, within what period should the charge-sheet normally be issued?
(a) Two hundred and seventy days from the date of suspension
(b) Six months from the date of suspension
(c) Three months from the date of suspension
(d) One year from the date of suspension
Ans. (c) Three months from the date of suspension — Explanation: The consolidated suspension instructions of 2014 ask for the charge-sheet within three months in such cases, and the 2016 OM reiterated this after the Ajay Kumar Choudhary judgment. [Ref: DoPT OM dated 2.1.2014; DoPT OM dated 23.8.2016]

19. Which authority reviews an order of suspension under Rule 10(6)?
(a) The inquiring authority
(b) The authority competent to modify or revoke the suspension
(c) The presenting officer
(d) The Central Vigilance Commission
Ans. (b) The authority competent to modify or revoke the suspension — Explanation: Rule 10(6) places the review in the hands of the authority competent to modify or revoke the suspension, acting on the Review Committee's recommendation. [Ref: Rule 10(6)]

20. The ninety-day validity limit in Rule 10(7) applies expressly to suspension made or deemed under which sub-rules?
(a) Rule 10(3) or Rule 10(4)
(b) Rule 10(5) only
(c) Rule 10(6) only
(d) Rule 10(1) or Rule 10(2)
Ans. (d) Rule 10(1) or Rule 10(2) — Explanation: Rule 10(7) refers to an order of suspension made or deemed to have been made under Rule 10(1) or Rule 10(2). [Ref: Rule 10(7)]

21. What is the purpose of the periodical review of suspension under Rule 10(6)?
(a) To fix the quantum of loss to be recovered
(b) To decide the penalty to be imposed
(c) To decide whether to extend or revoke the suspension so that it is not unduly prolonged
(d) To appoint the inquiring authority
Ans. (c) To decide whether to extend or revoke the suspension so that it is not unduly prolonged — Explanation: The review leads to an order extending or revoking the suspension; it is a safeguard against prolonged suspension, not a decision on the merits. [Ref: Rule 10(6)]

22. A suspension under Rule 10(1)(b) (criminal case under investigation) has continued with extensions; no charge-sheet has been issued. Under the 2022 provisos, what is the outer limit?
(a) There is no outer limit for criminal cases
(b) Two hundred and seventy days from the date of the suspension order
(c) Two years from the date of the suspension order
(d) Ninety days from the date of the suspension order
Ans. (c) Two years from the date of the suspension order — Explanation: For suspension under Rule 10(1)(aa) or 10(1)(b), the total period without a charge-sheet cannot exceed two years. [Ref: Rule 10(7), second proviso]

23. Consider the statements: (i) An extension of suspension after review may be for up to one hundred and eighty days at a time. (ii) Deemed suspension under Rule 10(2) must be reviewed within ninety days of arrest even while the person remains in custody. Which is/are correct?
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) Both (i) and (ii)
(d) Neither (i) nor (ii)
Ans. (a) Only (i) — Explanation: Rule 10(6) allows extensions of up to one hundred and eighty days at a time, but the first proviso to Rule 10(7) dispenses with review while the person remains in custody. [Ref: Rule 10(6) and 10(7)]

24. Assertion (A): An order of suspension that is not reviewed before the expiry of ninety days ceases to be valid. Reason (R): Rule 10(6) permits extension of suspension for up to one year at a time.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans. (c) A is true but R is false — Explanation: Rule 10(7) supports the assertion, but extensions under Rule 10(6) are limited to one hundred and eighty days at a time, so the reason is false. [Ref: Rule 10(6) and 10(7)]

25. Consider the statements: (i) Ajay Kumar Choudhary held that suspension may continue indefinitely if a charge-sheet is issued within one year. (ii) An extension of suspension after review may not exceed ninety days at a time. Which is/are correct?
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) Both (i) and (ii)
(d) Neither (i) nor (ii)
Ans. (d) Neither (i) nor (ii) — Explanation: The judgment fixed a three-month benchmark for serving the charge memo, and Rule 10(6) allows extensions of up to one hundred and eighty days, so both statements are wrong. [Ref: Rule 10(6); Ajay Kumar Choudhary (2015)]

Want all 1,000 CCS (CCA) Rules questions in one PDF? The CCS (CCA) Rules ebook has all 40 sets with answers, explanations and quick-revision tables of time limits, penalties, suspension, appeals and case law. Launch offer: ₹99 MRP ₹200. Get the ebook

Next: Set 8. See all sets under the label CCS CCA Rules. For exam preparation, attempt the full set before checking answers and revise the topic of every question you miss.

These questions are prepared for practice from the Central Civil Services (Classification, Control and Appeal) Rules, 1965 as amended (including the 2014, 2017, 2022 and January 2026 amendments), DoPT and CVC instructions, and Supreme Court judgments. Check the latest DoPT notifications and orders before relying on any detail.

POSH Act MCQ Set 7: Sections 5 to 8: District Officer and Local Committee (25 Questions with Answers)

2026-10-28T18:00:00.000+05:30

This is Set 7 of 40 in the smartvidya question bank on the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013 and Rules, with the latest judgments. Part II: Internal and Local Committees. This set covers Notification of District Officer, constitution and composition of Local Committee, nodal officers, jurisdiction, term and grants.

Try each question first, then tap Show answer to see the correct option, a short explanation and the section or rule reference. The questions are useful for departmental and promotion examinations, for Internal Committee members, HR and administrative officers, and law students.

Set 7: Sections 5 to 8: District Officer and Local Committee

1. The appropriate Government may notify as District Officer
(a) a judge of the District Court
(b) a District Magistrate, Additional District Magistrate, Collector or Deputy Collector
(c) the Superintendent of Police
(d) the District Labour Officer only
Ans. (b) a District Magistrate, Additional District Magistrate, Collector or Deputy Collector — Explanation: Section 5 allows these officers to be notified as District Officer for each district. [Ref: Section 5]

2. The Local Committee is constituted by
(a) the National Commission for Women
(b) the employer
(c) the District Officer
(d) the State Government directly
Ans. (c) the District Officer — Explanation: Section 6(1) requires every District Officer to constitute a Local Complaints Committee. [Ref: Section 6(1)]

3. The Local Committee receives complaints from establishments where the Internal Committee has not been constituted due to
(a) having fewer than ten workers
(b) having more than ten workers
(c) being in the private sector
(d) being in rural areas only
Ans. (a) having fewer than ten workers — Explanation: Section 6(1) refers to establishments with fewer than ten workers, or complaints against the employer. [Ref: Section 6(1)]

4. Nodal officers to receive complaints are designated by the District Officer in
(a) only the district headquarters
(b) every school
(c) every police station
(d) every block, taluka and tehsil in rural or tribal areas and every ward or municipality in urban areas
Ans. (d) every block, taluka and tehsil in rural or tribal areas and every ward or municipality in urban areas — Explanation: Section 6(2) provides for nodal officers at these levels. [Ref: Section 6(2)]

5. A nodal officer must forward a complaint to the Local Committee within
(a) seven days
(b) fifteen days
(c) three days
(d) thirty days
Ans. (a) seven days — Explanation: Section 6(2) requires forwarding to the concerned Local Committee within seven days. [Ref: Section 6(2)]

6. The jurisdiction of a Local Committee extends to
(a) the whole State
(b) the whole of India
(c) the areas of the district where it is constituted
(d) only the district headquarters
Ans. (c) the areas of the district where it is constituted — Explanation: Section 6(3) limits its jurisdiction to the areas of the district. [Ref: Section 6(3)]

7. The Chairperson of the Local Committee is nominated from among
(a) District Collectors
(b) eminent women in the field of social work and committed to the cause of women
(c) Members of the Legislative Assembly
(d) retired judges
Ans. (b) eminent women in the field of social work and committed to the cause of women — Explanation: Section 7(1)(a) requires an eminent woman in social work committed to the cause of women. [Ref: Section 7(1)(a)]

8. One member of the Local Committee is nominated from among women working in
(a) the High Court
(b) the Collectorate only
(c) the police department
(d) the block, taluka, tehsil, ward or municipality in the district
Ans. (d) the block, taluka, tehsil, ward or municipality in the district — Explanation: Section 7(1)(b) provides for this member. [Ref: Section 7(1)(b)]

9. The Local Committee has two members from NGOs or associations committed to the cause of women or persons familiar with sexual harassment issues, of whom
(a) both shall be men
(b) both shall be lawyers
(c) none need be women
(d) at least one shall be a woman
Ans. (d) at least one shall be a woman — Explanation: Section 7(1)(c) requires at least one of the two to be a woman. [Ref: Section 7(1)(c)]

10. Among the NGO nominees on the Local Committee, preferably at least one shall have
(a) an engineering degree
(b) medical qualifications
(c) police experience
(d) a background in law or legal knowledge
Ans. (d) a background in law or legal knowledge — Explanation: The first proviso to Section 7(1)(c) prefers at least one nominee with a background in law or legal knowledge. [Ref: Section 7(1)(c), first proviso]

11. At least one NGO nominee on the Local Committee shall be a woman belonging to
(a) the legal profession
(b) the Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, Other Backward Classes or a minority community notified by the Central Government
(c) the Indian Administrative Service
(d) the medical profession
Ans. (b) the Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, Other Backward Classes or a minority community notified by the Central Government — Explanation: The second proviso to Section 7(1)(c) requires this. [Ref: Section 7(1)(c), second proviso]

12. The ex officio member of the Local Committee is
(a) the Chief Medical Officer
(b) the Superintendent of Police
(c) the officer dealing with social welfare or women and child development in the district
(d) the District Judge
Ans. (c) the officer dealing with social welfare or women and child development in the district — Explanation: Section 7(1)(d) makes this officer an ex officio member. [Ref: Section 7(1)(d)]

13. The term of the Chairperson and members of the Local Committee is
(a) two years
(b) five years
(c) not exceeding three years from the date of appointment
(d) until the age of 65
Ans. (c) not exceeding three years from the date of appointment — Explanation: Section 7(2) fixes a term not exceeding three years. [Ref: Section 7(2)]

14. Under Rule 5, the Chairperson of the Local Committee is entitled to
(a) ₹200 per day
(b) ₹250 per day for holding proceedings
(c) ₹500 per day
(d) no fee
Ans. (b) ₹250 per day for holding proceedings — Explanation: Rule 5 fixes ₹250 per day for the Chairperson and ₹200 per day for the other non-official members. [Ref: Rule 5]

15. Fees and allowances of the Local Committee are paid by
(a) the respondent
(b) the District Officer
(c) the complainant
(d) the employer
Ans. (b) the District Officer — Explanation: Rule 5 says the District Officer pays the fees and allowances of the Local Committee. [Ref: Rule 5]

16. The provision on grants and audit for payment of fees and allowances of Local Committees is
(a) Section 24
(b) Section 29
(c) Section 25
(d) Section 8
Ans. (d) Section 8 — Explanation: Section 8 allows the Central Government to make grants to States for this purpose. [Ref: Section 8]

17. Under Section 8, the Central Government may make grants to the State Government
(a) from fines collected under Section 26 only
(b) after due appropriation by Parliament
(c) only with the Supreme Court's approval
(d) through employers
Ans. (b) after due appropriation by Parliament — Explanation: Section 8(1) provides for grants after due appropriation by Parliament. [Ref: Section 8(1)]

18. A Local Committee member may be removed for breach of confidentiality under
(a) Section 7(3)
(b) Section 18
(c) Section 26
(d) Section 4(5)
Ans. (a) Section 7(3) — Explanation: Section 7(3) contains removal grounds for Local Committee members, similar to Section 4(5); Section 7 has only four sub-sections. [Ref: Section 7(3)]

19. Complaints of domestic workers are received by
(a) the Local Committee
(b) the Internal Committee of the household
(c) the police only
(d) the placement agency
Ans. (a) the Local Committee — Explanation: Households do not constitute Internal Committees, so domestic workers' complaints go to the Local Committee. [Ref: Sections 6 and 11(1)]

20. The Supreme Court in Initiatives for Inclusion Foundation (October 2023) directed that District Officers be appointed in every district within
(a) one year
(b) two weeks
(c) four weeks
(d) six months
Ans. (c) four weeks — Explanation: The Court directed the Principal Secretaries of the Women and Child Development Departments to ensure appointment within four weeks. [Ref: Initiatives for Inclusion Foundation v. Union of India, 2023]

21. In December 2024, the Supreme Court directed that the names and designations of nodal officers be published on
(a) the employer's notice board only
(b) the Lok Sabha website
(c) the NCW website only
(d) the District Officer's website, and listed on SHe-Box where set up
Ans. (d) the District Officer's website, and listed on SHe-Box where set up — Explanation: The 3 December 2024 order required publication of nodal officer details and use of the SHe-Box portal. [Ref: Aureliano Fernandes; Initiatives for Inclusion Foundation, order of 3 December 2024]

22. The Local Committee also acts where
(a) the complaint is against the employer himself
(b) the respondent is a minor
(c) the complaint is anonymous
(d) the employer has more than 500 workers
Ans. (a) the complaint is against the employer himself — Explanation: Section 6(1) covers complaints against the employer. [Ref: Section 6(1)]

23. The number of members of a Local Committee, including the Chairperson and the ex officio member, is
(a) five
(b) three
(c) seven
(d) four
Ans. (a) five — Explanation: Section 7(1) provides for the Chairperson, one member under clause b, two members under clause c and one ex officio member. [Ref: Section 7(1)]

24. In rural and tribal areas, a woman may give her complaint first to
(a) the Panchayat President only
(b) the District Judge
(c) the nodal officer of her block, taluka or tehsil
(d) the employer only
Ans. (c) the nodal officer of her block, taluka or tehsil — Explanation: Nodal officers receive complaints and forward them to the Local Committee within seven days. [Ref: Section 6(2)]

25. Section 5 empowers the appropriate Government to notify District Officers
(a) only for metropolitan cities
(b) only for tribal areas
(c) for every district
(d) only where requested by employers
Ans. (c) for every district — Explanation: Section 5 provides for a District Officer for every district. [Ref: Section 5]

Want all 1,000 POSH Act questions in one PDF? The POSH Act ebook has all 40 sets with answers, explanations and quick-revision tables of time limits, committees, duties, penalties and case law. Launch offer: ₹99 MRP ₹200. Get the ebook

Next: Set 8. See all sets under the label POSH Act. For exam preparation, attempt the full set before checking answers and revise the topic of every question you miss.

These questions are prepared for practice from the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013 (with the 2013 Rules, and Supreme Court and High Court rulings up to 2026). Check the latest notifications and your service rules before relying on any detail.

IT Act MCQ Set 7: Chapter V: Secure Electronic Records and Signatures (25 Questions with Answers)

2026-10-28T15:00:00.000+05:30

This is Set 7 of 40 in the smartvidya question bank on the Information Technology Act, 2000, with the latest amendments and rules. Part II: Signatures, e-governance and electronic records. This set covers Sections 14 to 16: secure electronic record, secure electronic signature and security procedures and practices.

Try each question first, then tap Show answer to see the correct option, a short explanation and the section or rule reference. The questions are useful for departmental and promotion examinations, for law, IT and cyber security students, and for officers who deal with cyber cases.

Set 7: Chapter V: Secure Electronic Records and Signatures

1. Under Section 14, where any security procedure has been applied to an electronic record at a specific point of time, the record is deemed
(a) invalid
(b) a public document forever
(c) a digital signature
(d) a secure electronic record from that point of time to the time of verification
Ans. (d) a secure electronic record from that point of time to the time of verification — Explanation: Section 14 defines a secure electronic record. [Ref: Section 14]

2. Under Section 15, an electronic signature is deemed secure if
(a) it is typed in bold
(b) it is approved by an intermediary
(c) it is printed on letterhead
(d) the signature creation data at the time of affixing was under the exclusive control of the signatory and was stored and affixed in the prescribed manner
Ans. (d) the signature creation data at the time of affixing was under the exclusive control of the signatory and was stored and affixed in the prescribed manner — Explanation: Section 15 was substituted in 2009. [Ref: Section 15]

3. "Signature creation data" in the Explanation to Section 15 in the case of a digital signature means
(a) the private key of the subscriber
(b) the certificate number
(c) the public key
(d) the hash result
Ans. (a) the private key of the subscriber — Explanation: The Explanation clarifies this. [Ref: Section 15, Explanation]

4. Section 16 empowers the Central Government to prescribe
(a) penalties for hacking
(b) security procedures and practices for secure electronic records and secure electronic signatures
(c) blocking procedure
(d) duties of intermediaries
Ans. (b) security procedures and practices for secure electronic records and secure electronic signatures — Explanation: Section 16 deals with security procedures and practices. [Ref: Section 16]

5. While prescribing security procedures, the Central Government shall have regard to
(a) the views of intermediaries only
(b) the commercial circumstances, nature of transactions and such other related factors as it may consider appropriate
(c) only cost
(d) only foreign practice
Ans. (b) the commercial circumstances, nature of transactions and such other related factors as it may consider appropriate — Explanation: The proviso to Section 16, as substituted with effect from 27 October 2009, lists these factors. [Ref: Section 16, proviso]

6. Chapter V of the IT Act is titled
(a) Secure Electronic Records and Secure Electronic Signatures
(b) Electronic Governance
(c) Regulation of Certifying Authorities
(d) Duties of Subscribers
Ans. (a) Secure Electronic Records and Secure Electronic Signatures — Explanation: Chapter V contains Sections 14 to 16 of the Act. [Ref: Chapter V]

7. The concept of a secure electronic record matters mainly for
(a) fixing penalties
(b) blocking content
(c) taxing transactions
(d) presumptions of authenticity in legal proceedings
Ans. (d) presumptions of authenticity in legal proceedings — Explanation: Secure records enjoy evidentiary presumptions under the evidence law. [Ref: Section 14]

8. The Information Technology (Security Procedure) Rules, 2004 were framed under
(a) Section 69A
(b) Section 79
(c) Section 16
(d) Section 43A
Ans. (c) Section 16 — Explanation: These rules prescribe security procedures for secure electronic signatures. [Ref: Section 16]

9. A secure electronic signature requires that the signature creation data be under
(a) the exclusive control of the signatory at the time of affixing
(b) the control of the Controller
(c) the control of the CA
(d) joint control
Ans. (a) the exclusive control of the signatory at the time of affixing — Explanation: Exclusive control is a condition in Section 15 of the Act. [Ref: Section 15]

10. Section 14 deems a record secure from the time the security procedure was applied until
(a) the end of the year
(b) the time of sending
(c) the time of verification
(d) the time of printing
Ans. (c) the time of verification — Explanation: The period runs till verification. [Ref: Section 14]

11. Consider: (i) Section 14 deals with secure electronic records. (ii) Section 16 lets the Central Government prescribe security procedures. Which is correct?
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) Both (i) and (ii)
(d) Neither (i) nor (ii)
Ans. (c) Both (i) and (ii) — Explanation: Both are correct. [Ref: Sections 14 and 16]

12. Before 2009, Section 15 dealt with secure digital signatures; after 2009 it deals with
(a) offences
(b) intermediaries
(c) secure electronic signatures
(d) penalties
Ans. (c) secure electronic signatures — Explanation: Section 15 was substituted by the 2008 amendment. [Ref: Section 15]

13. Section 16 security procedures help determine whether
(a) a contract is stamped
(b) a website is legal
(c) an electronic record or signature is secure for legal purposes
(d) a person is guilty
Ans. (c) an electronic record or signature is secure for legal purposes — Explanation: Prescribed procedures underpin the secure status. [Ref: Section 16]

14. Which section deals with "security procedures and practices"?
(a) Section 16
(b) Section 15
(c) Section 14
(d) Section 43A
Ans. (a) Section 16 — Explanation: Section 16 is the relevant section; Section 43A deals with reasonable security practices for sensitive data. [Ref: Section 16]

15. The word "secure" in Chapter V refers primarily to
(a) encryption of all data
(b) integrity and reliability of the record or signature from the time security is applied
(c) offline storage
(d) physical locking of computers
Ans. (b) integrity and reliability of the record or signature from the time security is applied — Explanation: The chapter focuses on integrity and reliability. [Ref: Chapter V]

16. Which of these factors is listed in Section 16 for prescribing procedures?
(a) Nationality of the parties
(b) Commercial circumstances
(c) Political sensitivity
(d) Size of the server
Ans. (b) Commercial circumstances — Explanation: The proviso to Section 16 refers to commercial circumstances, nature of transactions and other related factors; the older list of factors was replaced in 2009. [Ref: Section 16, proviso]

17. Assertion (A): A record is treated as secure only from the time a prescribed security procedure is applied. Reason (R): Section 14 links the secure status to the specific point of time when the procedure was applied.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A — Explanation: Section 14 supports the assertion. [Ref: Section 14]

18. Section 15 requires that the electronic signature be stored and affixed in the manner
(a) chosen by the user
(b) decided by the intermediary
(c) decided by the court
(d) prescribed
Ans. (d) prescribed — Explanation: Prescribed manner is a condition. [Ref: Section 15]

19. The provisions of Chapter V help courts trust electronic records through
(a) penalties on parties
(b) presumptions about secure electronic records and secure electronic signatures in evidence law
(c) licences
(d) blocking orders
Ans. (b) presumptions about secure electronic records and secure electronic signatures in evidence law — Explanation: Evidence law presumes integrity of secure records unless contrary is proved. [Ref: Chapter V]

20. "Security procedure" is defined in
(a) Section 2(1)(f)
(b) Section 2(1)(k)
(c) Section 2(1)(zf)
(d) Section 2(1)(w)
Ans. (c) Section 2(1)(zf) — Explanation: It means the procedure prescribed under Section 16 of the Act. [Ref: Section 2(1)(zf)]

21. Which section was substituted by the 2008 amendment to refer to electronic signatures?
(a) Section 14
(b) Section 13
(c) Section 11
(d) Section 15
Ans. (d) Section 15 — Explanation: Section 15 now refers to secure electronic signatures. [Ref: Section 15]

22. Under Section 15, if signature creation data were shared with another person, the signature
(a) would be more secure
(b) would not satisfy the exclusive control test for a secure electronic signature
(c) would be a digital signature automatically
(d) would be valid only for Government
Ans. (b) would not satisfy the exclusive control test for a secure electronic signature — Explanation: Exclusive control is essential. [Ref: Section 15]

23. Chapter V lies between
(a) Chapter IX and Chapter X
(b) Chapter II and Chapter III
(c) Chapter XI and Chapter XII
(d) Chapter IV on attribution and Chapter VI on Certifying Authorities
Ans. (d) Chapter IV on attribution and Chapter VI on Certifying Authorities — Explanation: Chapter V comes after Chapter IV. [Ref: Arrangement of Sections]

24. Security procedures under Section 16 are prescribed by
(a) the Central Government
(b) CERT-In
(c) the Controller alone
(d) the State Governments
Ans. (a) the Central Government — Explanation: Section 16 vests the power in the Central Government. [Ref: Section 16]

25. A secure electronic record is one to which
(a) no procedure has been applied
(b) only a password has been applied
(c) a watermark has been added
(d) a security procedure has been applied at a specific point in time
Ans. (d) a security procedure has been applied at a specific point in time — Explanation: Section 14 definition. [Ref: Section 14]

Want all 1,000 IT Act questions in one PDF? The IT Act 2000 ebook has all 40 sets with answers, explanations and quick-revision tables of punishments, penalties, IT Rules timelines and case law. Launch offer: ₹99 MRP ₹200. Get the ebook

Next: Set 8. See all sets under the label IT Act. For exam preparation, attempt the full set before checking answers and revise the topic of every question you miss.

These questions are prepared for practice from the Information Technology Act, 2000 as amended (including the 2008 amendment, the Jan Vishwas Act, 2023 and the DPDP Act, 2023), the IT Rules, 2021 with amendments up to 2026, and the CERT-In Directions. Check the latest notifications from MeitY before relying on any detail.

RTI Act MCQ Set 7: Section 6: Request for Obtaining Information (25 Questions with Answers)

2026-10-28T12:00:00.000+05:30

This is Set 7 of 40 in the smartvidya question bank on the Right to Information Act, 2005 and RTI Rules, 2012, with the latest amendments. Part II: Right to information and obligations of public authorities. This set covers Form and language of request, fee, assistance for oral requests, no reasons required and transfer of applications.

Try each question first, then tap Show answer to see the correct option, a short explanation and the section or rule reference. The questions are useful for departmental and promotion examinations, for PIOs and First Appellate Authorities, and for citizens who use the RTI Act.

Set 7: Section 6: Request for Obtaining Information

1. Under Section 6(1), a request for information can be made
(a) only in person
(b) only by registered post
(c) only through a lawyer
(d) in writing or through electronic means
Ans. (d) in writing or through electronic means — Explanation: Section 6(1) allows written or electronic requests. [Ref: Section 6(1)]

2. A request under Section 6(1) may be in
(a) English or Hindi or the official language of the area
(b) English only
(c) any foreign language
(d) Hindi only
Ans. (a) English or Hindi or the official language of the area — Explanation: Section 6(1) allows these three options. [Ref: Section 6(1)]

3. A request under Section 6(1) must be accompanied by
(a) an affidavit
(b) an identity card
(c) a reason for seeking information
(d) such fee as may be prescribed
Ans. (d) such fee as may be prescribed — Explanation: Section 6(1) requires the prescribed fee, which is ₹10 under the Central rules. [Ref: Section 6(1); Rule 3]

4. Where a request cannot be made in writing, the PIO shall
(a) ask the person to come with a lawyer
(b) reject the request
(c) render all reasonable assistance to the person making the request orally to reduce it to writing
(d) forward it to the CIC
Ans. (c) render all reasonable assistance to the person making the request orally to reduce it to writing — Explanation: The proviso to Section 6(1) requires assistance to reduce oral requests to writing. [Ref: Section 6(1), proviso]

5. Under Section 6(2), an applicant
(a) is not required to give any reason for requesting information
(b) must show legal interest
(c) must give an affidavit of purpose
(d) must give detailed reasons
Ans. (a) is not required to give any reason for requesting information — Explanation: Section 6(2) bars asking for reasons. [Ref: Section 6(2)]

6. Under Section 6(2), the only personal details an applicant must give are
(a) date of birth and occupation
(b) those necessary for contacting him or her
(c) PAN and Aadhaar
(d) caste and religion
Ans. (b) those necessary for contacting him or her — Explanation: Section 6(2) limits personal details to contact details. [Ref: Section 6(2)]

7. Where the requested information is held by another public authority, the PIO must transfer the application within
(a) forty-eight hours
(b) thirty days
(c) five days from receipt
(d) ten days
Ans. (c) five days from receipt — Explanation: Section 6(3) requires transfer as soon as practicable but not later than five days. [Ref: Section 6(3)]

8. When transferring an application under Section 6(3), the PIO must
(a) refund the fee
(b) seek fresh fee from the applicant
(c) ask the applicant's permission
(d) inform the applicant immediately about the transfer
Ans. (d) inform the applicant immediately about the transfer — Explanation: Section 6(3) requires immediate intimation to the applicant. [Ref: Section 6(3)]

9. Section 6(3) applies where the information is
(a) about a third party
(b) older than 20 years
(c) held by another public authority, or its subject matter is more closely connected with another public authority's functions
(d) exempt under Section 8
Ans. (c) held by another public authority, or its subject matter is more closely connected with another public authority's functions — Explanation: Both situations allow transfer under Section 6(3). [Ref: Section 6(3)]

10. The time limit of five days for transfer under Section 6(3) is counted from
(a) the date of receipt of the application
(b) the date of payment of additional fee
(c) the date of the application
(d) the date of hearing
Ans. (a) the date of receipt of the application — Explanation: Transfer must be within five days from receipt. [Ref: Section 6(3)]

11. An application addressed to a public authority should be addressed to
(a) the CPIO or SPIO of the concerned public authority
(b) the CIC
(c) the First Appellate Authority
(d) the Minister
Ans. (a) the CPIO or SPIO of the concerned public authority — Explanation: Section 6(1) requires the request to be made to the PIO. [Ref: Section 6(1)]

12. Can a PIO reject an application because the applicant has not stated why the information is needed?
(a) Yes, if the information is voluminous
(b) No, Section 6(2) bars asking for reasons
(c) Yes, with CIC approval
(d) Yes, always
Ans. (b) No, Section 6(2) bars asking for reasons — Explanation: Section 6(2) protects applicants from having to justify requests. [Ref: Section 6(2)]

13. An application can be made to an APIO under Section 6(1) in respect of
(a) only State Government information
(b) only Supreme Court information
(c) information sought from a public authority, for forwarding to its PIO
(d) only appeals
Ans. (c) information sought from a public authority, for forwarding to its PIO — Explanation: Section 6(1) allows submission to the CAPIO or SAPIO. [Ref: Section 6(1); Section 5(2)]

14. Where only part of an application relates to another public authority, the PIO should
(a) reject the whole application
(b) return the application
(c) reply to nothing
(d) transfer that part to the other authority under Section 6(3) and answer the rest
Ans. (d) transfer that part to the other authority under Section 6(3) and answer the rest — Explanation: The part concerning another authority is transferred within five days. [Ref: Section 6(3)]

15. A Central Government online facility for filing RTI applications to Central public authorities is
(a) the e-Courts portal
(b) the GeM portal
(c) the RTI Online portal (rtionline.gov.in)
(d) the CPGRAMS portal only
Ans. (c) the RTI Online portal (rtionline.gov.in) — Explanation: DoPT runs RTI Online for filing applications and first appeals with online fee payment. [Ref: Section 6(1); DoPT RTI Online]

16. Under Section 6(1), electronic requests are permitted. This means an application by e-mail
(a) is never valid
(b) is valid only for State bodies
(c) is valid if the prescribed fee is paid in the manner allowed
(d) is valid without any fee
Ans. (c) is valid if the prescribed fee is paid in the manner allowed — Explanation: Electronic means are permitted, subject to payment of the prescribed fee. [Ref: Section 6(1)]

17. Which of the following details is an applicant NOT required to give?
(a) The prescribed fee
(b) An address for contact
(c) Particulars of the information sought
(d) The reason for seeking the information
Ans. (d) The reason for seeking the information — Explanation: Section 6(2) bars requiring reasons. [Ref: Section 6(2)]

18. A PIO receives an application on a subject handled by two other public authorities. He should
(a) reply to for all three authorities himself
(b) transfer the relevant parts to each concerned authority within five days and inform the applicant
(c) reject the application
(d) ask the applicant to apply again
Ans. (b) transfer the relevant parts to each concerned authority within five days and inform the applicant — Explanation: Section 6(3) applies to each authority concerned. [Ref: Section 6(3)]

19. Who renders assistance to an illiterate person who wishes to make an oral request?
(a) The CIC
(b) The PIO
(c) The applicant's advocate
(d) The Head of Department
Ans. (b) The PIO — Explanation: The proviso to Section 6(1) places this duty on the PIO. [Ref: Section 6(1), proviso]

20. The application fee prescribed under the RTI Rules, 2012 for Central public authorities is
(a) nil
(b) Rupees ten
(c) Rupees one hundred
(d) Rupees fifty
Ans. (b) Rupees ten — Explanation: Rule 3 prescribes ₹10 per application. [Ref: Rule 3, RTI Rules 2012]

21. An application transferred under Section 6(3) to another public authority is treated, for the time limit, as received by that authority from
(a) the date it was first filed
(b) the date of payment
(c) the date of its receipt by that authority
(d) the date of the first appeal
Ans. (c) the date of its receipt by that authority — Explanation: The receiving authority's time limit runs from its own receipt of the transferred application. [Ref: Section 7(1); DoPT guidelines]

22. Assertion (A): An RTI applicant need not give reasons. Reason (R): The right to information is a statutory right of every citizen subject only to the Act.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A — Explanation: Sections 3 and 6(2) together mean no justification is needed for exercising the right. [Ref: Sections 3 and 6(2)]

23. Consider: (i) A request may be made in the official language of the area. (ii) A request must be made only in English. Which is correct?
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) Both (i) and (ii)
(d) Neither (i) nor (ii)
Ans. (a) Only (i) — Explanation: Section 6(1) allows English, Hindi or the official language of the area. [Ref: Section 6(1)]

24. A request for information under Section 6 is to specify
(a) the applicant's income
(b) the purpose of the information
(c) the applicant's political views
(d) the particulars of the information sought
Ans. (d) the particulars of the information sought — Explanation: The applicant specifies the particulars of information sought, without reasons. [Ref: Section 6(1)]

25. A PIO who keeps an application that belongs to another authority for 25 days before transferring it
(a) acts properly if the fee is refunded
(b) violates the five-day limit in Section 6(3)
(c) acts properly if he informs the CIC
(d) acts properly
Ans. (b) violates the five-day limit in Section 6(3) — Explanation: Transfer must be within five days of receipt. [Ref: Section 6(3)]

Want all 1,000 RTI questions in one PDF? The RTI Act and Rules ebook has all 40 sets with answers, explanations and quick-revision tables of time limits, fees, exemptions and case law. Launch offer: ₹99 MRP ₹200. Get the ebook

Next: Set 8. See all sets under the label RTI Act. For exam preparation, attempt the full set before checking answers and revise the topic of every question you miss.

These questions are prepared for practice from the Right to Information Act, 2005 as amended (including the 2019 amendment and the November 2025 change to Section 8(1)(j) made by the DPDP Act, 2023), the RTI Rules, 2012 and the 2019 Rules. Check the latest notifications and DoPT instructions before relying on any detail.

GFR 2017 MCQ Set 8: Excess, Savings, Re-appropriation and Contingency Fund (25 Questions with Answers)

2026-10-28T09:00:00.000+05:30

This is Set 8 of 48 in the smartvidya question bank on the General Financial Rules (GFR) 2017, updated up to 31.01.2026. Part II: Budget formulation and implementation. This set covers Rules 61 to 70: excess expenditure, surrender, New Service, re-appropriation, supplementary grants, Contingency Fund and Chief Accounting Authority.

Set 8: Excess, Savings, Re-appropriation and Contingency Fund

1. The Accounts Officer shall not allow payment against sanctions in excess of Budget provisions unless there is specific approval of
(a) the Head of Office
(b) the vendor's bank
(c) the Chief Accounting Authority
(d) the CAG
Ans. (c) the Chief Accounting Authority — Explanation: Rule 61 requires Chief Accounting Authority approval for excess payments. [Ref: Rule 61]

2. Before concurring in an excess under any head, the FA and Chief Accounting Authority must ensure availability of funds through
(a) the Public Account
(b) user charges
(c) borrowing from banks
(d) re-appropriation or Supplementary Demands for Grants
Ans. (d) re-appropriation or Supplementary Demands for Grants — Explanation: Rule 61 requires funds to be ensured through these routes. [Ref: Rule 61]

3. Anticipated savings in grants must be surrendered to the Finance Ministry
(a) after the close of the year
(b) only if the CAG objects
(c) by the dates prescribed, before the close of the financial year
(d) never, as they lapse automatically
Ans. (c) by the dates prescribed, before the close of the financial year — Explanation: Rule 62(1) requires surrender before the close of the year. [Ref: Rule 62(1)]

4. Funds provided during a financial year and not utilised before its close
(a) lapse at the close of the financial year
(b) are carried forward automatically
(c) are kept as deposits
(d) are transferred to the Contingency Fund
Ans. (a) lapse at the close of the financial year — Explanation: Rule 62(1) states unutilised funds lapse at year end. [Ref: Rule 62(1)]

5. Under Rule 62(2), savings should be surrendered
(a) only if above Rupees one crore
(b) only in March
(c) immediately when foreseen, without waiting for the end of the year
(d) only after audit
Ans. (c) immediately when foreseen, without waiting for the end of the year — Explanation: No savings may be held in reserve for possible future excesses. [Ref: Rule 62(2)]

6. Rush of expenditure in the closing months of the financial year is regarded as
(a) permitted for capital works
(b) a breach of financial propriety
(c) good financial management
(d) mandatory
Ans. (b) a breach of financial propriety — Explanation: Rule 62(3) treats it as a breach and requires adherence to expenditure plans. [Ref: Rule 62(3)]

7. Expenditure on a "New Service" not contemplated in the Budget can be incurred only after obtaining
(a) CAG approval
(b) re-appropriation from savings
(c) Head of Department approval
(d) a supplementary grant or an advance from the Contingency Fund
Ans. (d) a supplementary grant or an advance from the Contingency Fund — Explanation: Rule 63 requires a supplementary grant or Contingency Fund advance during that year. [Ref: Rule 63]

8. Guidelines for determining cases of "New Service"/"New Instrument of Service" are in
(a) Appendix 10
(b) Annexure-1 to Appendix 3
(c) Appendix 1
(d) Form GFR 1
Ans. (b) Annexure-1 to Appendix 3 — Explanation: Rule 63 refers to Annexure-1 to Appendix 3 of GFR 2017. [Ref: Rule 63]

9. A Disbursing Officer called upon to honour a claim certain to cause excess over his allotment must
(a) refuse it permanently
(b) pay from his own pocket
(c) pay it and report later
(d) take orders of the administrative authority before authorising payment
Ans. (d) take orders of the administrative authority before authorising payment — Explanation: Rule 64(2) requires orders of the administrative authority, which arranges funds. [Ref: Rule 64(2)]

10. Re-appropriation of funds within a grant may be sanctioned at any time
(a) after the close of the year
(b) before the close of the financial year to which the grant relates
(c) within three months of the year end
(d) only in the first quarter
Ans. (b) before the close of the financial year to which the grant relates — Explanation: Rule 65(1) permits re-appropriation before the close of the financial year. [Ref: Rule 65(1)]

11. For re-appropriation, the primary unit is the final unit of appropriation, namely
(a) the Minor Head
(b) the Major Head
(c) the Object Head of account
(d) the Demand
Ans. (c) the Object Head of account — Explanation: Rule 65(1) defines the primary unit as the Object Head. [Ref: Rule 65(1)]

12. Funds shall NOT be re-appropriated from a unit with the intention of
(a) avoiding a supplementary grant
(b) restoring the diverted appropriation later when savings arise elsewhere
(c) meeting an unforeseen excess
(d) using genuine savings
Ans. (b) restoring the diverted appropriation later when savings arise elsewhere — Explanation: Rule 65(3) prohibits such temporary diversion. [Ref: Rule 65(3)]

13. Applications for re-appropriation are ordinarily supported by a statement in
(a) Form GFR 1
(b) Form GFR 9
(c) Form GFR 3
(d) Form GFR 8
Ans. (a) Form GFR 1 — Explanation: Rule 65(4) prescribes Form GFR 1 showing how the excess is to be met. [Ref: Rule 65(4)]

14. In orders sanctioning re-appropriation, reasons must be stated for savings and excess of
(a) Rupees 1 crore or over
(b) Rupees 1 lakh or over
(c) Rupees 10 lakh or over
(d) Rupees 10,000 or over
Ans. (b) Rupees 1 lakh or over — Explanation: Rule 65(4) requires reasons for saving and excess of Rupees 1 lakh or more. [Ref: Rule 65(4)]

15. Supplementary Grants are obtained in accordance with
(a) Article 267(1) of the Constitution
(b) Article 115(1) of the Constitution
(c) Article 116 of the Constitution
(d) Article 112(3) of the Constitution
Ans. (b) Article 115(1) of the Constitution — Explanation: Rule 66 refers to Article 115(1); procedure is in Appendix 5 of GFR 2017. [Ref: Rule 66]

16. An advance from the Contingency Fund is obtained when unforeseen expenditure arises and
(a) the CAG approves
(b) the expenditure is below Rupees one lakh
(c) savings are available within the grant
(d) there is not sufficient time for voting of a Supplementary Demand before the close of the year
Ans. (d) there is not sufficient time for voting of a Supplementary Demand before the close of the year — Explanation: Rule 67(1) covers unforeseen excess or new service where time does not permit a Supplementary Demand. [Ref: Rule 67(1)]

17. An advance from the Contingency Fund is also obtained to meet expenditure in excess of provisions included in
(a) the Finance Accounts
(b) an Appropriation (Vote on Account) Act
(c) the Outcome Budget
(d) the Finance Act
Ans. (b) an Appropriation (Vote on Account) Act — Explanation: Rule 67(2) covers expenditure in excess of Vote on Account provisions. [Ref: Rule 67(2)]

18. The procedure for obtaining and recouping advances from the Contingency Fund is laid down in
(a) the DFPR 2024
(b) the Government Accounting Rules, 1990
(c) the Contingency Fund of India (Amendment) Rules, 2021
(d) the Treasury Rules
Ans. (c) the Contingency Fund of India (Amendment) Rules, 2021 — Explanation: Rule 67(4) refers to these rules, published vide G.S.R. 721(E) dated 4 October 2021 and placed at Appendix 6 of GFR 2017. [Ref: Rule 67(4)]

19. Money indisputably payable by Government shall not ordinarily be left unpaid, subject to
(a) Article 114(3) of the Constitution
(b) Article 266(2) of the Constitution
(c) Article 284 of the Constitution
(d) Article 150 of the Constitution
Ans. (a) Article 114(3) of the Constitution — Explanation: Rule 68(i) deals with inevitable payments. [Ref: Rule 68(i)]

20. The Chief Accounting Authority of a Ministry or Department is
(a) the Financial Adviser
(b) the Principal Chief Controller of Accounts
(c) the Minister
(d) the Secretary of the Ministry or Department
Ans. (d) the Secretary of the Ministry or Department — Explanation: Rule 70 names the Secretary as the Chief Accounting Authority. [Ref: Rule 70]

21. Which of the following is a duty of the Chief Accounting Authority under Rule 70?
(a) To appear before the Committee on Public Accounts and other Parliamentary Committees
(b) To approve the Union Budget
(c) To prepare the Finance Accounts of the Union
(d) To audit the accounts of other Ministries
Ans. (a) To appear before the Committee on Public Accounts and other Parliamentary Committees — Explanation: Rule 70(iv) includes appearing before the PAC and other Parliamentary Committees. [Ref: Rule 70(iv)]

22. The Chief Accounting Authority must ensure that procurement of works, services and supplies is implemented in a manner that is
(a) fair, equitable, transparent, competitive and cost-effective
(b) confined to known vendors
(c) fastest regardless of cost
(d) decided by the vendor
Ans. (a) fair, equitable, transparent, competitive and cost-effective — Explanation: Rule 70(viii) lays down these procurement principles. [Ref: Rule 70(viii)]

23. The extract on check against provision of funds as part of pre-check of bills is placed at
(a) Appendix 10
(b) Appendix 2
(c) Appendix 5
(d) Appendix 6
Ans. (a) Appendix 10 — Explanation: Rule 69 refers to Appendix 10 of GFR 2017. [Ref: Rule 69]

24. Where any excess over allotment is apprehended, the subordinate authority must
(a) incur it and seek regularisation later
(b) stop all expenditure for the year
(c) obtain additional allotment before incurring the excess expenditure
(d) borrow from another office
Ans. (c) obtain additional allotment before incurring the excess expenditure — Explanation: Rule 64(1) requires additional allotment in advance, using a Liability Register in Form GFR 3 (GFR 2017). [Ref: Rule 64(1)]

25. Financial Advisers must ensure adherence to the stipulated
(a) recruitment plans
(b) vendor delivery schedules
(c) audit calendars
(d) Monthly and Quarterly Expenditure Plans
Ans. (d) Monthly and Quarterly Expenditure Plans — Explanation: Rule 62(3) and (4) require FAs to ensure adherence to Monthly and Quarterly Expenditure Plans. [Ref: Rule 62(3) and (4)]

Next: Set 9. See all sets under the label GFR 2017. For exam preparation, attempt the full set before checking answers and revise the topic of every question you miss.

Teaching Aptitude MCQ Set 29: Inductive, Deductive, Inquiry and Constructivist Approaches (25 Questions with Answers)

2026-10-28T06:00:00.000+05:30

This is Set 29 of 60 in the smartvidya question bank on Teaching Aptitude (UGC NET Paper 1, Unit I). Part IV: Methods of teaching. This set covers Inductive–deductive, analytic–synthetic, inquiry, 5E model and flipped classroom.

Set 29: Inductive, Deductive, Inquiry and Constructivist Approaches

1. The inductive method proceeds from
(a) abstract to concrete
(b) examples to a general rule
(c) a general rule to examples
(d) the unknown to the known
Ans. (b) examples to a general rule — Explanation: Learners observe particular cases and derive a generalisation. [Ref: Inductive method]

2. The deductive method proceeds from
(a) particular examples to a general rule
(b) concrete to abstract
(c) known to unknown in all cases
(d) a general rule to particular examples
Ans. (d) a general rule to particular examples — Explanation: The rule is stated first and then applied to specific problems. [Ref: Deductive method]

3. Which statement about inductive and deductive methods is correct?
(a) The two methods cannot be combined
(b) Deduction always produces deeper understanding than induction
(c) Induction is better for discovering rules; deduction is faster for applying them
(d) Induction cannot be used in mathematics
Ans. (c) Induction is better for discovering rules; deduction is faster for applying them — Explanation: Teachers often use induction to arrive at a rule and deduction to apply it, combining the two. [Ref: Inductive–deductive method]

4. The inductive method is psychologically sound because it
(a) moves from concrete experiences to abstract generalisations
(b) begins with abstract formulas
(c) avoids examples
(d) depends on memorisation
Ans. (a) moves from concrete experiences to abstract generalisations — Explanation: Learners understand rules better when they derive them from their own observations. [Ref: Inductive method]

5. The analytic method in mathematics proceeds from
(a) the concrete to the abstract
(b) the unknown to the known
(c) the simple to the complex
(d) the known to the unknown
Ans. (b) the unknown to the known — Explanation: Analysis starts from what is to be proved and works back to known facts. [Ref: Analytic and synthetic methods]

6. The synthetic method in mathematics proceeds from
(a) the conclusion to the hypothesis
(b) the whole to the part
(c) the unknown to the known
(d) the known to the unknown
Ans. (d) the known to the unknown — Explanation: Synthesis begins with known facts and combines them to reach the conclusion. [Ref: Analytic and synthetic methods]

7. Which method is described as the method of discovery, while its counterpart is the method of presentation?
(a) Lecture method
(b) Analytic method
(c) Dictation method
(d) Synthetic method
Ans. (b) Analytic method — Explanation: Analysis helps learners discover how a proof is found; synthesis presents the proof in a neat final form. [Ref: Analytic and synthetic methods]

8. The 5E instructional model consists of
(a) examine, experiment, express, edit and enrol
(b) engage, explore, explain, elaborate and evaluate
(c) enter, exit, explain, examine and end
(d) educate, exercise, express, evaluate and enjoy
Ans. (b) engage, explore, explain, elaborate and evaluate — Explanation: The 5E model, developed by the Biological Sciences Curriculum Study (BSCS), is based on constructivist learning. [Ref: BSCS 5E model]

9. Constructivism holds that learners
(a) have fixed knowledge at birth
(b) actively construct their own understanding through experience and reflection
(c) passively receive knowledge from teachers
(d) learn only through rewards and punishment
Ans. (b) actively construct their own understanding through experience and reflection — Explanation: Knowledge is built by learners as they connect new experiences to existing ideas. [Ref: Constructivism]

10. Social constructivism is most closely associated with
(a) Lev Vygotsky
(b) Edward Thorndike
(c) Ivan Pavlov
(d) B.F. Skinner
Ans. (a) Lev Vygotsky — Explanation: Vygotsky stressed that knowledge is constructed through social interaction and language. [Ref: Social constructivism]

11. In a constructivist classroom, the teacher's role is mainly that of
(a) a facilitator who poses problems and supports inquiry
(b) a silent spectator
(c) a transmitter of ready-made answers
(d) an examiner only
Ans. (a) a facilitator who poses problems and supports inquiry — Explanation: The teacher creates situations in which learners explore and build understanding. [Ref: Constructivism]

12. Inquiry-based learning begins with
(a) a summary of conclusions
(b) memorising definitions
(c) questions, problems or scenarios that learners investigate
(d) a final examination
Ans. (c) questions, problems or scenarios that learners investigate — Explanation: Learners pose or receive questions and investigate them to build knowledge. [Ref: Inquiry-based learning]

13. In "open inquiry",
(a) no investigation takes place
(b) students only confirm a known result
(c) students formulate their own questions and design their own investigations
(d) the teacher provides the question, procedure and result
Ans. (c) students formulate their own questions and design their own investigations — Explanation: Open inquiry is the most learner-directed level of inquiry. [Ref: Levels of inquiry]

14. The flipped classroom model was popularised by
(a) Johnson and Johnson
(b) Fred Keller and J.G. Sherman
(c) Joyce and Weil
(d) Jonathan Bergmann and Aaron Sams
Ans. (d) Jonathan Bergmann and Aaron Sams — Explanation: Two chemistry teachers in Colorado began recording lessons for students around 2007, popularising the flipped approach. [Ref: Bergmann and Sams]

15. In a flipped classroom,
(a) students teach the teacher
(b) classes are held only at night
(c) teachers lecture in class and give no homework
(d) students study content at home, often through videos, and do activities and problem-solving in class
Ans. (d) students study content at home, often through videos, and do activities and problem-solving in class — Explanation: Class time is freed for active learning, discussion and individual help. [Ref: Flipped classroom]

16. Experiential learning is based on the idea that
(a) learning comes from reflecting on direct experience
(b) only teachers learn from experience
(c) learning comes only from reading
(d) experience is irrelevant to learning
Ans. (a) learning comes from reflecting on direct experience — Explanation: Kolb and Dewey emphasised learning through experience followed by reflection. [Ref: Experiential learning]

17. Which teaching approach is LEAST consistent with constructivism?
(a) Rote memorisation of definitions without understanding
(b) Problem-based tasks
(c) Hands-on investigation
(d) Group discussion
Ans. (a) Rote memorisation of definitions without understanding — Explanation: Constructivism emphasises meaning-making, not memorisation without understanding. [Ref: Constructivism]

18. A misconception in learners is best addressed by
(a) repeating the correct answer only once
(b) punishing the learner
(c) creating cognitive conflict and helping them reconstruct their ideas
(d) ignoring it
Ans. (c) creating cognitive conflict and helping them reconstruct their ideas — Explanation: Learners need to see why their idea does not work and build a better explanation. [Ref: Conceptual change]

19. Concept mapping as a learning tool was developed by
(a) Tony Buzan
(b) Jerome Bruner
(c) Jean Piaget
(d) Joseph Novak
Ans. (d) Joseph Novak — Explanation: Novak developed concept maps in the 1970s based on Ausubel's theory of meaningful learning. [Ref: Novak, concept maps]

20. Mind mapping, a radial diagram technique for organising ideas, was popularised by
(a) Alex Osborn
(b) Tony Buzan
(c) Joseph Novak
(d) Edward de Bono
Ans. (b) Tony Buzan — Explanation: Tony Buzan popularised mind maps in the 1970s. [Ref: Buzan, mind maps]

21. Blended learning refers to
(a) combining face-to-face instruction with online learning
(b) teaching two subjects in one period
(c) using only printed materials
(d) mixing students of different ages
Ans. (a) combining face-to-face instruction with online learning — Explanation: Blended learning integrates classroom and digital learning experiences. [Ref: Blended learning]

22. In inquiry teaching, the teacher should respond to students' questions by
(a) asking them to memorise the textbook
(b) refusing to respond
(c) always giving the answer immediately
(d) guiding them to find answers through investigation
Ans. (d) guiding them to find answers through investigation — Explanation: Guidance keeps the learner active in finding answers. [Ref: Inquiry-based learning]

23. "Learning by doing" and "learning by living" are slogans associated with
(a) behaviourist drill
(b) rote learning
(c) pragmatism and progressive education
(d) idealism
Ans. (c) pragmatism and progressive education — Explanation: Progressive educators such as Dewey valued activity and real-life experience. [Ref: Progressive education]

24. The approach in which students work on an extended project to answer a complex question and present a public product is
(a) memory level teaching
(b) lecture method
(c) programmed learning
(d) project-based learning
Ans. (d) project-based learning — Explanation: Project-based learning involves sustained inquiry and a final product shared with others. [Ref: Project-based learning]

25. A teacher first gives students several examples of nouns and lets them define a noun, then gives the formal definition and practice exercises. This is the
(a) demonstration method
(b) lecture method
(c) inductive–deductive method
(d) programmed method
Ans. (c) inductive–deductive method — Explanation: Induction is used to arrive at the concept and deduction to apply it. [Ref: Inductive–deductive method]

Next: Set 30. See all sets under the label Teaching Aptitude. For exam preparation, attempt the full set before checking answers and revise the topic of every question you miss.

CCS (CCA) Rules MCQ Set 6: Suspension II: Deemed Suspension (25 Questions with Answers)

2026-10-27T21:00:00.000+05:30

This is Set 6 of 40 in the smartvidya question bank on the Central Civil Services (Classification, Control and Appeal) Rules, 1965, with the latest amendments and DoPT instructions. Part II: Suspension. This set covers Rule 10(2), (3), (4): 48 hours custody, conviction, setting aside of penalty.

Set 6: Suspension II: Deemed Suspension

1. A Government servant is deemed to be under suspension under Rule 10(2)(a) if he is detained in custody for a period exceeding how long?
(a) Forty-eight hours
(b) Seventy-two hours
(c) Seven days
(d) Twenty-four hours
Ans. (a) Forty-eight hours — Explanation: Rule 10(2)(a) deems a Government servant suspended if he is detained in custody, on a criminal charge or otherwise, for a period exceeding forty-eight hours. [Ref: Rule 10(2)(a)]

2. A Government servant is held in preventive detention for four days without any criminal charge. What is his position under Rule 10(2)?
(a) He is treated as on leave for the period of detention
(b) He is deemed suspended only if the detention exceeds fifteen days
(c) He is deemed to be under suspension, as detention "on a criminal charge or otherwise" is covered
(d) He is not deemed suspended because there is no criminal charge
Ans. (c) He is deemed to be under suspension, as detention "on a criminal charge or otherwise" is covered — Explanation: Rule 10(2)(a) applies to custody whether on a criminal charge or otherwise, so preventive detention beyond forty-eight hours attracts deemed suspension. [Ref: Rule 10(2)(a)]

3. From which date does deemed suspension under Rule 10(2)(a) take effect?
(a) From the date the forty-eight hours expire
(b) From the date of detention
(c) From the date of filing of the police charge-sheet
(d) From the date the department issues an order
Ans. (b) From the date of detention — Explanation: The Government servant is deemed to have been suspended with effect from the date of his detention, not from the end of the forty-eight hours. [Ref: Rule 10(2)(a)]

4. Under Rule 10(2)(b), when is a convicted Government servant deemed to be under suspension?
(a) When convicted of any offence, even if sentenced only to a fine
(b) Only when he is sentenced to imprisonment exceeding one year
(c) Only when the conviction is upheld by the High Court
(d) When sentenced to imprisonment exceeding forty-eight hours and not forthwith dismissed, removed or compulsorily retired
Ans. (d) When sentenced to imprisonment exceeding forty-eight hours and not forthwith dismissed, removed or compulsorily retired — Explanation: Rule 10(2)(b) applies on conviction with a sentence of imprisonment exceeding forty-eight hours, unless he is forthwith dismissed, removed or compulsorily retired. [Ref: Rule 10(2)(b)]

5. From which date is a Government servant deemed suspended under Rule 10(2)(b)?
(a) From the date of his conviction
(b) From the date of registration of the FIR
(c) From the date of arrest in the case
(d) From the date of the appellate judgment
Ans. (a) From the date of his conviction — Explanation: Rule 10(2)(b) deems him suspended with effect from the date of conviction. [Ref: Rule 10(2)(b)]

6. According to the Explanation to Rule 10(2), how is the period of forty-eight hours in clause (b) computed?
(a) From the date the judgment is communicated to the department
(b) From the commencement of imprisonment after conviction, taking intermittent periods of imprisonment into account
(c) From the date of arrest, counting only continuous custody
(d) From the date of the offence, excluding any period on bail
Ans. (b) From the commencement of imprisonment after conviction, taking intermittent periods of imprisonment into account — Explanation: The Explanation provides that the forty-eight hours are computed from the commencement of imprisonment after conviction and intermittent periods of imprisonment are taken into account. [Ref: Rule 10(2), Explanation]

7. Deemed suspension under Rule 10(2) is treated as having been ordered by which authority?
(a) The court that remanded him to custody
(b) The police officer who made the arrest
(c) The appointing authority
(d) The head of office where he was working
Ans. (c) The appointing authority — Explanation: Rule 10(2) states that the Government servant shall be deemed to have been suspended by an order of the appointing authority. [Ref: Rule 10(2)]

8. A Government servant is arrested and released on bail after thirty hours. What is the position under Rule 10?
(a) He is not deemed suspended, but may be suspended under Rule 10(1)(b) if the facts warrant
(b) He is deemed suspended only if bail is later cancelled
(c) He is deemed suspended from the date of arrest
(d) He must be suspended under Rule 10(1)(b) in every such case
Ans. (a) He is not deemed suspended, but may be suspended under Rule 10(1)(b) if the facts warrant — Explanation: Custody did not exceed forty-eight hours, so Rule 10(2) is not attracted; the competent authority may still consider suspension under Rule 10(1)(b) on the merits. [Ref: Rule 10(1)(b) and 10(2)(a)]

9. After conviction, a Government servant undergoes imprisonment in two spells of thirty hours and twenty hours. He is not dismissed. What follows?
(a) He is not deemed suspended, as neither spell exceeded forty-eight hours
(b) He is deemed suspended only on confirmation of the sentence in appeal
(c) He is deemed suspended only if the second spell exceeds forty-eight hours
(d) He is deemed suspended, as intermittent periods are added and the total exceeds forty-eight hours
Ans. (d) He is deemed suspended, as intermittent periods are added and the total exceeds forty-eight hours — Explanation: The Explanation to Rule 10(2) requires intermittent periods of imprisonment to be taken into account; fifty hours exceeds the limit. [Ref: Rule 10(2), Explanation]

10. A penalty of dismissal imposed on a Government servant under suspension is set aside in appeal and the case is remitted for further inquiry. What happens to the suspension?
(a) It is deemed to have started from the date of the appellate order
(b) It is deemed to have continued in force from the date of the original order of dismissal
(c) It must be freshly ordered after a new review
(d) It ends automatically on the date of the appellate order
Ans. (b) It is deemed to have continued in force from the date of the original order of dismissal — Explanation: Rule 10(3) deems the suspension to have continued from the date of the original penalty order and to remain in force until further orders. [Ref: Rule 10(3)]

11. A court sets aside a dismissal and the disciplinary authority decides to hold a further inquiry on the same allegations. What is the position under Rule 10(4)?
(a) He must be reinstated and cannot be suspended again
(b) He is deemed suspended only if the court so directs
(c) He is deemed placed under suspension by the appointing authority from the date of the original order of dismissal
(d) He is deemed suspended from the date of the court's judgment
Ans. (c) He is deemed placed under suspension by the appointing authority from the date of the original order of dismissal — Explanation: Rule 10(4) deems him suspended by the appointing authority from the date of the original penalty order, and the suspension continues until further orders. [Ref: Rule 10(4)]

12. Under the proviso to Rule 10(4), in which situation may a further inquiry be ordered after a court sets aside the penalty?
(a) Where the court examined the merits and found the charges not proved
(b) Where the Government servant has retired in the meantime
(c) Where the court passed its order purely on technical grounds without going into the merits of the case
(d) Where the disciplinary authority disagrees with the court's view on facts
Ans. (c) Where the court passed its order purely on technical grounds without going into the merits of the case — Explanation: The proviso permits further inquiry only to meet a situation where the court decided purely on technical grounds without examining the merits. [Ref: Rule 10(4), proviso]

13. A court quashes a dismissal order after examining the evidence and holding the charges baseless. Can the disciplinary authority hold a further inquiry and invoke deemed suspension under Rule 10(4)?
(a) No; further inquiry is permissible only where the court's order was purely on technical grounds
(b) Yes; Rule 10(4) applies whenever a court sets aside a penalty
(c) Yes, but only with the UPSC's advice
(d) Yes, after obtaining a review under Rule 29-A
Ans. (a) No; further inquiry is permissible only where the court's order was purely on technical grounds — Explanation: Since the court decided on merits, the proviso to Rule 10(4) bars a further inquiry, and deemed suspension under that sub-rule cannot arise. [Ref: Rule 10(4), proviso]

14. Rule 10(3) applies when a penalty of dismissal, removal or compulsory retirement is set aside in what manner?
(a) In appeal or on review under these rules, with the case remitted for further inquiry or action
(b) By a court of law on merits
(c) By the Government servant's own representation to the head of office
(d) By the UPSC in its advice
Ans. (a) In appeal or on review under these rules, with the case remitted for further inquiry or action — Explanation: Rule 10(3) covers setting aside under the Rules themselves, in appeal or review; setting aside by a court falls under Rule 10(4). [Ref: Rule 10(3) and 10(4)]

15. Rule 10(3) applies to a penalty of dismissal, removal or compulsory retirement imposed on which Government servant?
(a) Any Government servant, whether or not ever suspended
(b) Only a Government servant convicted by a court
(c) A Government servant who was under suspension when the penalty was imposed
(d) Only a Group A officer
Ans. (c) A Government servant who was under suspension when the penalty was imposed — Explanation: Rule 10(3) speaks of a penalty imposed upon a Government servant under suspension, whose suspension is then deemed to have continued. [Ref: Rule 10(3)]

16. According to Government instructions, what is a Government servant who is arrested required to do?
(a) Inform the department only if custody exceeds forty-eight hours
(b) Promptly inform his official superior of the arrest and its circumstances, even if released on bail
(c) Inform only the UPSC
(d) Inform the department only if he is convicted
Ans. (b) Promptly inform his official superior of the arrest and its circumstances, even if released on bail — Explanation: Government decisions under Rule 10 require prompt intimation of arrest to the official superior; failure to do so can itself attract disciplinary action. [Ref: Rule 10, Government of India decisions]

17. Is a separate order of suspension necessary for deemed suspension under Rule 10(2) to take effect?
(a) No, but the court must issue a direction
(b) No; it operates by force of the rule, though a formal order recording it is usually issued
(c) Yes; it takes effect only from the date of the order
(d) Yes; without a reasoned order it has no effect
Ans. (b) No; it operates by force of the rule, though a formal order recording it is usually issued — Explanation: Deemed suspension arises automatically under Rule 10(2); an order is normally issued only to record the fact and its date of effect. [Ref: Rule 10(2)]

18. A Government servant is convicted and sentenced to three years' imprisonment, and the disciplinary authority dismisses him forthwith under the special procedure. Is he deemed suspended under Rule 10(2)(b)?
(a) Yes, until the appeal against conviction is decided
(b) No, because sentences above two years are excluded
(c) No; Rule 10(2)(b) applies only where he is not forthwith dismissed, removed or compulsorily retired
(d) Yes; deemed suspension continues alongside dismissal
Ans. (c) No; Rule 10(2)(b) applies only where he is not forthwith dismissed, removed or compulsorily retired — Explanation: Rule 10(2)(b) is attracted only when he is not forthwith dismissed, removed or compulsorily retired consequent to the conviction. [Ref: Rule 10(2)(b)]

19. A Government servant is convicted and sentenced only to pay a fine. What is the position under Rule 10(2)(b)?
(a) He is deemed suspended until the fine is paid
(b) He is deemed suspended only if the fine exceeds a prescribed amount
(c) He is deemed suspended from the date of conviction
(d) He is not deemed suspended, as there is no sentence of imprisonment exceeding forty-eight hours
Ans. (d) He is not deemed suspended, as there is no sentence of imprisonment exceeding forty-eight hours — Explanation: Rule 10(2)(b) requires a sentence of imprisonment exceeding forty-eight hours; a fine alone does not attract deemed suspension. [Ref: Rule 10(2)(b)]

20. A Government servant is held in police custody for exactly forty-eight hours and then released. Is he deemed suspended?
(a) Only if the arrest was for an offence connected with his duties
(b) Yes, from the date of release
(c) Yes; custody of forty-eight hours or more is enough
(d) No; the rule requires custody for a period exceeding forty-eight hours
Ans. (d) No; the rule requires custody for a period exceeding forty-eight hours — Explanation: Rule 10(2)(a) uses the words "exceeding forty-eight hours", so custody of exactly forty-eight hours does not attract it. [Ref: Rule 10(2)(a)]

21. For deemed suspension under Rule 10(2)(a), which kinds of custody are counted?
(a) Only judicial custody
(b) Only custody after a charge-sheet is filed in court
(c) Only police custody
(d) Both police custody and judicial custody
Ans. (d) Both police custody and judicial custody — Explanation: The rule speaks of detention in custody, whether on a criminal charge or otherwise, without distinguishing police from judicial custody. [Ref: Rule 10(2)(a)]

22. Which sub-rule of Rule 10 deals with suspension where a penalty is set aside by a court of law?
(a) Rule 10(6)
(b) Rule 10(4)
(c) Rule 10(3)
(d) Rule 10(2)
Ans. (b) Rule 10(4) — Explanation: Rule 10(3) deals with setting aside in appeal or review under the Rules, while Rule 10(4) deals with setting aside by a court. [Ref: Rule 10(4)]

23. Consider the statements: (i) Deemed suspension under Rule 10(2) takes effect only after the competent authority passes a reasoned order. (ii) Detention in custody exceeding forty-eight hours otherwise than on a criminal charge also attracts Rule 10(2)(a). Which is/are correct?
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) Both (i) and (ii)
(d) Neither (i) nor (ii)
Ans. (b) Only (ii) — Explanation: Deemed suspension arises by operation of the rule without any reasoned order, and Rule 10(2)(a) covers custody on a criminal charge or otherwise. [Ref: Rule 10(2)(a)]

24. Assertion (A): A Government servant whose dismissal is set aside by a court on a technical ground may be treated as under suspension if the disciplinary authority decides to hold a further inquiry. Reason (R): Rule 10(4) deems him suspended by the appointing authority from the date of the original order of dismissal.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A — Explanation: Rule 10(4) is the very provision that creates the deemed suspension in this situation, so R explains A. [Ref: Rule 10(4)]

25. Assertion (A): A Government servant convicted and sentenced to two years' imprisonment who is dismissed forthwith is deemed suspended from the date of conviction. Reason (R): Rule 10(2)(b) applies only where the Government servant is not forthwith dismissed, removed or compulsorily retired.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans. (d) A is false but R is true — Explanation: Because he was dismissed forthwith, Rule 10(2)(b) is not attracted, so the assertion is false while the reason correctly states the rule. [Ref: Rule 10(2)(b)]

Next: Set 7. See all sets under the label CCS CCA Rules. For exam preparation, attempt the full set before checking answers and revise the topic of every question you miss.

POSH Act MCQ Set 6: Section 4: Term, Removal and Working of the Internal Committee (25 Questions with Answers)

2026-10-27T18:00:00.000+05:30

This is Set 6 of 40 in the smartvidya question bank on the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013 and Rules, with the latest judgments. Part II: Internal and Local Committees. This set covers Tenure, removal grounds, vacancies, external member's role and practical issues.

Try each question first, then tap Show answer to see the correct option, a short explanation and the section or rule reference. The questions are useful for departmental and promotion examinations, for Internal Committee members, HR and administrative officers, and law students.

Set 6: Section 4: Term, Removal and Working of the Internal Committee

1. Members of the Internal Committee, including the Presiding Officer, hold office for a period not exceeding
(a) three years from the date of nomination
(b) two years
(c) five years
(d) one year
Ans. (a) three years from the date of nomination — Explanation: Section 4(3) fixes a term not exceeding three years from the date of nomination as specified by the employer. [Ref: Section 4(3)]

2. The provision on removal of a member of the Internal Committee is
(a) Section 16
(b) Section 4(3)
(c) Section 7(3)
(d) Section 4(5)
Ans. (d) Section 4(5) — Explanation: Section 4(5) lists the grounds for removal of the Presiding Officer or a member. [Ref: Section 4(5)]

3. A ground for removal of an Internal Committee member under Section 4(5) is
(a) contravening the confidentiality provision of Section 16
(b) having legal knowledge
(c) being from an NGO
(d) being a woman
Ans. (a) contravening the confidentiality provision of Section 16 — Explanation: Section 4(5)(a) covers contravention of Section 16 of the Act. [Ref: Section 4(5)(a)]

4. Which of these is a ground for removal of an Internal Committee member?
(a) Taking leave
(b) Being found guilty in disciplinary proceedings, or having such proceedings pending
(c) Declining a promotion
(d) Being transferred within the same office
Ans. (b) Being found guilty in disciplinary proceedings, or having such proceedings pending — Explanation: Section 4(5)(c) covers disciplinary proceedings that have found the member guilty or are pending. [Ref: Section 4(5)(c)]

5. A member convicted of an offence, or against whom an inquiry into an offence is pending, may be
(a) elevated to Local Committee Chairperson
(b) removed under Section 4(5)(b)
(c) retained as Presiding Officer
(d) retained without any action
Ans. (b) removed under Section 4(5)(b) — Explanation: Section 4(5)(b) covers conviction or a pending inquiry into an offence. [Ref: Section 4(5)(b)]

6. A member who has so abused her position as to make her continuance in office prejudicial to the public interest may be
(a) removed under Section 4(5)(d)
(b) made Presiding Officer
(c) given a warning only
(d) transferred to the Local Committee
Ans. (a) removed under Section 4(5)(d) — Explanation: Section 4(5)(d) covers abuse of position prejudicial to the public interest. [Ref: Section 4(5)(d)]

7. A vacancy caused by removal of an Internal Committee member is filled by
(a) the District Officer
(b) automatic promotion of the junior-most member
(c) the Local Committee
(d) fresh nomination in accordance with Section 4
Ans. (d) fresh nomination in accordance with Section 4 — Explanation: Section 4(5) provides that the vacancy shall be filled by fresh nomination. [Ref: Section 4(5)]

8. The number of grounds for removal of an Internal Committee member listed in Section 4(5) is
(a) three
(b) six
(c) four
(d) two
Ans. (c) four — Explanation: Section 4(5) has four clauses: breach of Section 16, criminal conviction or inquiry, disciplinary proceedings, and abuse of position. [Ref: Section 4(5)]

9. A Presiding Officer who is herself the respondent in a complaint should
(a) send the complaint to the police
(b) decide the complaint alone
(c) preside over the inquiry
(d) not take part in that inquiry, and the employer should arrange an alternative under its policy
Ans. (d) not take part in that inquiry, and the employer should arrange an alternative under its policy — Explanation: Natural justice bars a person from judging her own cause, so she must not sit on that inquiry. [Ref: Section 4(5); principles of natural justice]

10. The Karnataka High Court (2025, Jayna Kothari v. Manish Kumar) held that an advocate serving as external member of an Internal Committee
(a) is liable for professional misconduct for every finding
(b) cannot sit on any committee
(c) acts as counsel for the complainant
(d) performs a statutory role and is not engaged in legal practice for the parties
Ans. (d) performs a statutory role and is not engaged in legal practice for the parties — Explanation: The Court found no client-advocate relationship between the external member and the person who complained against her to the Bar Council, held that he had no locus, and quashed the complaint and the notice. [Ref: Karnataka HC, Jayna Kothari v. Manish Kumar, WP 19619 of 2022, decided 2025]

11. The external member's main purpose on the Internal Committee is to
(a) replace the Presiding Officer
(b) represent the respondent
(c) bring independence and expertise and prevent undue influence from the employer
(d) represent the employer's management
Ans. (c) bring independence and expertise and prevent undue influence from the employer — Explanation: An outside member reduces the risk of bias in an internal process. [Ref: Section 4(2)(c)]

12. After the three-year term of an Internal Committee ends, the employer should
(a) reconstitute the committee by a fresh written order
(b) wait for the District Officer to reconstitute it
(c) let the committee lapse
(d) transfer pending complaints to the police
Ans. (a) reconstitute the committee by a fresh written order — Explanation: Members serve for not more than three years, so the employer must renew the committee. [Ref: Section 4(3)]

13. An employer that fails to constitute an Internal Committee as required by Section 4(1) is liable to
(a) a fine of ₹5,000 only
(b) no penalty
(c) imprisonment of three years
(d) a fine which may extend to ₹50,000
Ans. (d) a fine which may extend to ₹50,000 — Explanation: Section 26(1)(a) makes failure to constitute an Internal Committee punishable with fine up to ₹50,000. [Ref: Section 26(1)(a)]

14. Under Rule 13, the employer must publicly declare
(a) the outcome of every complaint with names
(b) the names and contact details of all members of the Internal Committee
(c) the salary of committee members
(d) the names of all complainants
Ans. (b) the names and contact details of all members of the Internal Committee — Explanation: Rule 13(e) requires the names and contact details of committee members to be declared. [Ref: Rule 13(e)]

15. The order constituting the Internal Committee must be displayed at a conspicuous place under
(a) Section 4(3)
(b) Section 26
(c) Section 19(b)
(d) Section 9
Ans. (c) Section 19(b) — Explanation: Section 19(b) requires display of the penal consequences of sexual harassment and the order constituting the committee. [Ref: Section 19(b)]

16. The Internal Committee's quorum for proceedings under Rule 7 is
(a) any two members
(b) the Presiding Officer alone
(c) at least three members including the Presiding Officer or Chairperson
(d) all members
Ans. (c) at least three members including the Presiding Officer or Chairperson — Explanation: Rule 7(7) requires a minimum of three members, including the Presiding Officer or Chairperson, for proceedings. [Ref: Rule 7(7)]

17. Orientation and capacity-building programmes for Internal Committee members are the duty of the
(a) police
(b) respondent
(c) employer
(d) complainant
Ans. (c) employer — Explanation: Section 19(c) and Rule 13 require orientation and capacity-building programmes. [Ref: Section 19(c); Rule 13]

18. An external member who discloses the identity of a complainant to the media
(a) becomes the respondent automatically
(b) may be removed under Section 4(5) and may face a penalty under Section 17
(c) commits no wrong as she is an outsider
(d) is protected by Section 16
Ans. (b) may be removed under Section 4(5) and may face a penalty under Section 17 — Explanation: Section 16 binds everyone involved, and breach is a removal ground and attracts a penalty. [Ref: Sections 4(5), 16 and 17]

19. Members of an Internal Committee should declare any conflict of interest because
(a) the Act requires all members to be strangers to the parties
(b) a biased member can vitiate the inquiry under the principles of natural justice
(c) conflicts are punishable under Section 26
(d) the District Officer must approve each case
Ans. (b) a biased member can vitiate the inquiry under the principles of natural justice — Explanation: Rule 7(4) requires the inquiry to follow natural justice, which includes absence of bias. [Ref: Rule 7(4)]

20. Where an organisation has fewer than ten employees, the woman should complain to
(a) the Local Committee of the district
(b) the employer's Internal Committee, which is compulsory
(c) the High Court
(d) the National Commission for Women only
Ans. (a) the Local Committee of the district — Explanation: The Local Committee receives complaints from establishments where no Internal Committee is constituted because there are fewer than ten workers. [Ref: Section 6(1)]

21. A woman employee complains to the Internal Committee that the CEO-owner of the firm harassed her. The complaint should go to
(a) the Internal Committee of the firm
(b) the board of directors only
(c) the auditors
(d) the Local Committee, as it is against the employer himself
Ans. (d) the Local Committee, as it is against the employer himself — Explanation: Section 6(1) sends complaints against the employer to the Local Committee. [Ref: Section 6(1)]

22. Where the employer is a company, a complaint against a director who controls the company is commonly treated as
(a) outside the Act
(b) an ordinary complaint for the Internal Committee in all cases
(c) a complaint against the employer, for the Local Committee
(d) a matter for the shareholders only
Ans. (c) a complaint against the employer, for the Local Committee — Explanation: Section 2(g) includes the persons responsible for management and control within "employer". [Ref: Sections 2(g) and 6(1)]

23. The three-year term of Internal Committee members is counted from
(a) the date of nomination as specified by the employer
(b) the beginning of the financial year
(c) the date of approval by the District Officer
(d) the date of the first complaint
Ans. (a) the date of nomination as specified by the employer — Explanation: Section 4(3) counts the term from the date of nomination specified by the employer. [Ref: Section 4(3)]

24. The phrase "Internal Committee" in the 2013 Rules refers to
(a) the Internal Complaints Committee under Section 4
(b) the Board of Directors
(c) the Local Committee
(d) the disciplinary authority
Ans. (a) the Internal Complaints Committee under Section 4 — Explanation: Section 2(h) and the Rules use Internal Committee for the Section 4 body. [Ref: Section 2(h)]

25. The external member of the Internal Committee in a Government office
(a) must be from the police
(b) is mandatory just as in the private sector
(c) is replaced by a Government nominee
(d) is optional
Ans. (b) is mandatory just as in the private sector — Explanation: Section 4(2)(c) applies to every employer, public or private. [Ref: Section 4(2)(c)]

Next: Set 7. See all sets under the label POSH Act. For exam preparation, attempt the full set before checking answers and revise the topic of every question you miss.

IT Act MCQ Set 6: Chapter IV: Attribution, Acknowledgment and Despatch (25 Questions with Answers)

2026-10-27T15:00:00.000+05:30

This is Set 6 of 40 in the smartvidya question bank on the Information Technology Act, 2000, with the latest amendments and rules. Part II: Signatures, e-governance and electronic records. This set covers Sections 11 to 13: attribution to originator, acknowledgment of receipt and time and place of despatch and receipt.

Try each question first, then tap Show answer to see the correct option, a short explanation and the section or rule reference. The questions are useful for departmental and promotion examinations, for law, IT and cyber security students, and for officers who deal with cyber cases.

Set 6: Chapter IV: Attribution, Acknowledgment and Despatch

1. Under Section 11, an electronic record is attributed to the originator if it was sent by
(a) anyone using his computer
(b) an intermediary
(c) the originator himself, a person authorised to act on his behalf, or an information system programmed by or on behalf of the originator to operate automatically
(d) a hacker
Ans. (c) the originator himself, a person authorised to act on his behalf, or an information system programmed by or on behalf of the originator to operate automatically — Explanation: Section 11 lists these three situations. [Ref: Section 11]

2. Section 12 deals with
(a) acknowledgment of receipt
(b) attribution
(c) time of despatch
(d) secure electronic records
Ans. (a) acknowledgment of receipt — Explanation: Section 12 covers acknowledgment of electronic records. [Ref: Section 12]

3. Where the originator has not agreed on any particular form of acknowledgment, acknowledgment may be given by
(a) only a signed letter
(b) only a phone call
(c) only a court order
(d) any communication by the addressee, automated or otherwise, or any conduct sufficient to indicate receipt
Ans. (d) any communication by the addressee, automated or otherwise, or any conduct sufficient to indicate receipt — Explanation: Section 12(1) allows informal acknowledgment. [Ref: Section 12(1)]

4. Where the originator has stipulated that the record is binding only on receipt of acknowledgment, then until acknowledgment is received the record is
(a) deemed never to have been sent
(b) valid
(c) invalid permanently
(d) deemed received
Ans. (a) deemed never to have been sent — Explanation: Section 12(2) provides this. [Ref: Section 12(2)]

5. Under Section 13(1), despatch of an electronic record occurs when it
(a) is read by the addressee
(b) enters a computer resource outside the control of the originator
(c) is saved
(d) is typed
Ans. (b) enters a computer resource outside the control of the originator — Explanation: Section 13(1) defines the time of despatch. [Ref: Section 13(1)]

6. If the addressee has designated a computer resource for receiving records, receipt occurs at the time when the record
(a) is read
(b) enters the designated computer resource
(c) is acknowledged
(d) is printed
Ans. (b) enters the designated computer resource — Explanation: Section 13(2)(a) provides this. [Ref: Section 13(2)(a)]

7. If the record is sent to a computer resource of the addressee that is not the designated one, receipt occurs when
(a) it enters any server
(b) the originator decides
(c) it is sent
(d) the record is retrieved by the addressee
Ans. (d) the record is retrieved by the addressee — Explanation: Section 13(2)(a)(ii) provides this. [Ref: Section 13(2)]

8. If the addressee has not designated any computer resource, receipt occurs when
(a) the intermediary stores it
(b) the originator sends it
(c) the record enters the computer resource of the addressee
(d) the addressee reads it
Ans. (c) the record enters the computer resource of the addressee — Explanation: Section 13(2)(b) provides this. [Ref: Section 13(2)(b)]

9. Under Section 13(3), an electronic record is deemed despatched at the place where
(a) the originator has his place of business, and received where the addressee has his place of business
(b) the intermediary is located
(c) the record is read
(d) the server is located
Ans. (a) the originator has his place of business, and received where the addressee has his place of business — Explanation: Place of business governs, not server location. [Ref: Section 13(3)]

10. If the originator or addressee has more than one place of business, the relevant place is
(a) the registered office of the ISP
(b) any place chosen by the court
(c) the principal place of business
(d) the server location
Ans. (c) the principal place of business — Explanation: Section 13(5)(a) provides this. [Ref: Section 13(5)(a)]

11. If the originator or addressee has no place of business, the relevant place is
(a) the place of the intermediary
(b) New Delhi
(c) the usual place of residence
(d) the server location
Ans. (c) the usual place of residence — Explanation: Section 13(5)(b) provides this. [Ref: Section 13(5)(b)]

12. "Usual place of residence" for a body corporate under Section 13 means
(a) the place of its server
(b) the place where it is registered
(c) the place of its largest customer
(d) any branch
Ans. (b) the place where it is registered — Explanation: Section 13(5)(c) provides this. [Ref: Section 13(5)(c)]

13. Section 13 is relevant for determining
(a) the duties of intermediaries
(b) the time and place of formation of electronic contracts, and hence jurisdiction
(c) the licence of CAs
(d) the penalty for hacking
Ans. (b) the time and place of formation of electronic contracts, and hence jurisdiction — Explanation: Time and place of despatch and receipt affect contract formation and jurisdiction. [Ref: Section 13]

14. Section 11 helps determine
(a) whether data is personal
(b) whether a website is blocked
(c) whether a crime has occurred
(d) whether an electronic record is binding on the originator
Ans. (d) whether an electronic record is binding on the originator — Explanation: Attribution decides whose record it is. [Ref: Section 11]

15. Chapter IV of the IT Act is titled
(a) Duties of Subscribers
(b) Electronic Governance
(c) Secure Electronic Records
(d) Attribution, Acknowledgment and Despatch of Electronic Records
Ans. (d) Attribution, Acknowledgment and Despatch of Electronic Records — Explanation: Chapter IV contains Sections 11 to 13 of the Act. [Ref: Chapter IV]

16. An auto-reply message from the addressee's mail server can serve as acknowledgment under
(a) Section 79
(b) Section 43
(c) Section 3A
(d) Section 12(1)(a), as an automated communication
Ans. (d) Section 12(1)(a), as an automated communication — Explanation: Automated communication is expressly allowed. [Ref: Section 12(1)]

17. Under Section 12(3), where the originator has not stipulated that the record is binding only on acknowledgment, and no acknowledgment is received within the agreed or reasonable time, the originator may
(a) assume it was received
(b) sue immediately
(c) give notice to the addressee and, if still not acknowledged, treat the record as never sent
(d) report to CERT-In
Ans. (c) give notice to the addressee and, if still not acknowledged, treat the record as never sent — Explanation: Section 12(3) provides this procedure. [Ref: Section 12(3)]

18. Consider: (i) Despatch occurs when the record leaves the originator's control. (ii) Place of despatch is the location of the server. Which is correct?
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) Both (i) and (ii)
(d) Neither (i) nor (ii)
Ans. (a) Only (i) — Explanation: Place is determined by place of business, not server location. [Ref: Section 13]

19. The rules in Section 13 apply
(a) only to foreign records
(b) only to Government records
(c) save as otherwise agreed between the originator and addressee
(d) compulsorily in all cases
Ans. (c) save as otherwise agreed between the originator and addressee — Explanation: Section 13 begins with "Save as otherwise agreed". [Ref: Section 13(1)]

20. Section 13(4) provides that the place of receipt rules apply even if
(a) the originator is unknown
(b) the computer resource is located in a place different from where the record is deemed received
(c) the record is not sent
(d) the addressee is a minor
Ans. (b) the computer resource is located in a place different from where the record is deemed received — Explanation: Server location does not change the deemed place. [Ref: Section 13(4)]

21. An e-mail sent by a company's automated billing system is attributed to the company because
(a) the system signed it
(b) Section 11(c) attributes records sent by an information system programmed to operate automatically
(c) the ISP sent it
(d) the customer received it
Ans. (b) Section 11(c) attributes records sent by an information system programmed to operate automatically — Explanation: Automated systems' messages are attributed to the originator. [Ref: Section 11(c)]

22. Assertion (A): An e-mail received on a server in the USA by an Indian company based in Mumbai is deemed received in Mumbai. Reason (R): Section 13(3) deems receipt at the addressee's place of business.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A — Explanation: Section 13(3) and (4) support this. [Ref: Section 13]

23. Which section covers attribution of electronic records?
(a) Section 11
(b) Section 14
(c) Section 12
(d) Section 13
Ans. (a) Section 11 — Explanation: Section 11 deals with attribution. [Ref: Section 11]

24. The concept of "designated computer resource" appears in
(a) Section 43
(b) Section 70
(c) Section 11
(d) Section 13(2)
Ans. (d) Section 13(2) — Explanation: It determines the time of receipt. [Ref: Section 13(2)]

25. Chapter IV rules are mainly based on
(a) the Budapest Convention
(b) the Copyright Act
(c) the GDPR
(d) the UNCITRAL Model Law on Electronic Commerce
Ans. (d) the UNCITRAL Model Law on Electronic Commerce — Explanation: These provisions mirror the Model Law. [Ref: Chapter IV]

Next: Set 7. See all sets under the label IT Act. For exam preparation, attempt the full set before checking answers and revise the topic of every question you miss.

RTI Act MCQ Set 6: Section 5: Public Information Officers (25 Questions with Answers)

2026-10-27T12:00:00.000+05:30

This is Set 6 of 40 in the smartvidya question bank on the Right to Information Act, 2005 and RTI Rules, 2012, with the latest amendments. Part II: Right to information and obligations of public authorities. This set covers Designation of CPIOs and SPIOs, Assistant PIOs, duties of PIOs and assistance from other officers.

Try each question first, then tap Show answer to see the correct option, a short explanation and the section or rule reference. The questions are useful for departmental and promotion examinations, for PIOs and First Appellate Authorities, and for citizens who use the RTI Act.

Set 6: Section 5: Public Information Officers

1. Under Section 5(1), every public authority was to designate Public Information Officers within
(a) one year
(b) one hundred and twenty days
(c) one hundred days of the enactment of the Act
(d) thirty days
Ans. (c) one hundred days of the enactment of the Act — Explanation: Section 5(1) fixed 100 days for designation of CPIOs and SPIOs. [Ref: Section 5(1)]

2. Public Information Officers are to be designated in
(a) only the Ministry
(b) all administrative units or offices under the public authority, as necessary
(c) only the head office
(d) only district offices
Ans. (b) all administrative units or offices under the public authority, as necessary — Explanation: Section 5(1) requires as many PIOs as necessary in all administrative units or offices. [Ref: Section 5(1)]

3. Assistant Public Information Officers are designated under Section 5(2) at
(a) each sub-divisional level or other sub-district level
(b) the CIC office
(c) the Ministry only
(d) the State capital only
Ans. (a) each sub-divisional level or other sub-district level — Explanation: APIOs receive applications and appeals at sub-divisional or sub-district level. [Ref: Section 5(2)]

4. The role of an Assistant Public Information Officer is to
(a) receive applications or appeals and forward them to the PIO or the appellate authority or Commission
(b) impose penalties
(c) decide RTI applications
(d) hear second appeals
Ans. (a) receive applications or appeals and forward them to the PIO or the appellate authority or Commission — Explanation: Section 5(2) gives the APIO a receiving and forwarding role. [Ref: Section 5(2)]

5. An APIO must forward an application or appeal to the PIO, appellate authority or Commission
(a) within thirty days
(b) within ten days
(c) forthwith
(d) at the end of the month
Ans. (c) forthwith — Explanation: Section 5(2) requires the APIO to forward forthwith. [Ref: Section 5(2)]

6. Where an application is submitted through an APIO, the time for reply under Section 7(1) is extended by
(a) thirty days
(b) ten days
(c) five days
(d) fifteen days
Ans. (c) five days — Explanation: The proviso to Section 5(2) adds five days to the time limit. [Ref: Section 5(2), proviso]

7. Section 5(3) requires every PIO to
(a) ask applicants for reasons
(b) forward all requests to the CIC
(c) verify the citizenship documents of every applicant
(d) deal with requests and render reasonable assistance to persons seeking information
Ans. (d) deal with requests and render reasonable assistance to persons seeking information — Explanation: Section 5(3) imposes a duty of reasonable assistance on PIOs. [Ref: Section 5(3)]

8. For the proper discharge of duties, a PIO may seek the assistance of
(a) only the Head of Office
(b) any other officer as he or she considers necessary
(c) private consultants
(d) only the CIC
Ans. (b) any other officer as he or she considers necessary — Explanation: Section 5(4) allows the PIO to seek help from any other officer. [Ref: Section 5(4)]

9. An officer whose assistance is sought by the PIO under Section 5(4) must
(a) render all assistance and is treated as a PIO for the purpose of contravention
(b) refer the matter to the CIC
(c) refuse if busy
(d) seek a fee from the applicant
Ans. (a) render all assistance and is treated as a PIO for the purpose of contravention — Explanation: Section 5(5) treats such an officer as a PIO for any contravention of the Act. [Ref: Section 5(5)]

10. The "deemed PIO" concept under Section 5(5) means that
(a) the APIO decides applications
(b) every officer is a PIO for all purposes
(c) the First Appellate Authority is a PIO
(d) an officer whose help is sought is liable like a PIO for contraventions
Ans. (d) an officer whose help is sought is liable like a PIO for contraventions — Explanation: This ensures accountability of officers who hold the information. [Ref: Section 5(5)]

11. Who designates the PIOs in a public authority?
(a) The public authority itself
(b) The CIC
(c) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(d) The Ministry of Law
Ans. (a) The public authority itself — Explanation: Section 5(1) places the duty on every public authority. [Ref: Section 5(1)]

12. Failure to appoint a PIO enables a person to complain to the Information Commission under
(a) Section 20(2)
(b) Section 11(1)
(c) Section 19(1)
(d) Section 18(1)(a)
Ans. (d) Section 18(1)(a) — Explanation: Section 18(1)(a) covers inability to submit a request because no PIO has been appointed. [Ref: Section 18(1)(a)]

13. In the Department of Posts, which officers have been notified as CAPIOs for receiving RTI applications for Central public authorities?
(a) None, as post offices cannot receive RTI applications
(b) Only Head Post Masters of State capitals
(c) Only the Director General of Posts
(d) Designated post office officials across the country
Ans. (d) Designated post office officials across the country — Explanation: The Department of Posts designated officials at post offices as CAPIOs to receive and forward applications to Central public authorities. [Ref: Section 5(2); DoPT and Department of Posts arrangements]

14. Under Section 5(3), the PIO must also render reasonable assistance where
(a) the applicant wants legal advice
(b) the applicant wants to file a civil suit
(c) the applicant needs help in seeking information
(d) the applicant asks for an interview
Ans. (c) the applicant needs help in seeking information — Explanation: Section 5(3) is a general duty of assistance to persons seeking information. [Ref: Section 5(3)]

15. The time limit under Section 5(1) for designating PIOs was counted from
(a) the enactment of the Act
(b) the publication of rules
(c) the date of the first request
(d) the constitution of the CIC
Ans. (a) the enactment of the Act — Explanation: Section 5(1) refers to 100 days of enactment. [Ref: Section 5(1)]

16. Assistant Public Information Officers also receive
(a) only complaints to courts
(b) first appeals and second appeals for forwarding
(c) only applications
(d) only fee payments
Ans. (b) first appeals and second appeals for forwarding — Explanation: Section 5(2) mentions applications and appeals. [Ref: Section 5(2)]

17. A PIO who seeks information from a Section Officer who refuses to give it, causing delay, may find that
(a) the Section Officer can be held liable as a deemed PIO
(b) the CIC cannot act
(c) the applicant must refile
(d) only the PIO is penalised in all cases
Ans. (a) the Section Officer can be held liable as a deemed PIO — Explanation: Section 5(5) makes the assisting officer liable like a PIO. [Ref: Section 5(5)]

18. A public authority with many offices should designate
(a) no PIO if it has a website
(b) as many PIOs as necessary in its administrative units
(c) PIOs only in headquarters
(d) only one PIO for the whole country
Ans. (b) as many PIOs as necessary in its administrative units — Explanation: Section 5(1) requires adequate designation. [Ref: Section 5(1)]

19. The First Appellate Authority under the RTI Rules, 2012 is an officer
(a) junior to the CPIO
(b) of the CIC
(c) senior in rank to the CPIO
(d) of the State Government
Ans. (c) senior in rank to the CPIO — Explanation: Rule 2 of the RTI Rules, 2012 defines First Appellate Authority as an officer senior in rank to the CPIO. [Ref: Rule 2, RTI Rules 2012; Section 19(1)]

20. Which of the following correctly describes a CPIO?
(a) An officer designated under Section 5(1) by a Central public authority, including a CAPIO
(b) Any officer of the Government of India
(c) A State Government officer
(d) A Commissioner appointed under Section 12
Ans. (a) An officer designated under Section 5(1) by a Central public authority, including a CAPIO — Explanation: Section 2(c) read with Section 5 defines the CPIO. [Ref: Sections 2(c) and 5]

21. A Section 5(4) request for help by the PIO can be made to
(a) only officers in the same building
(b) only the Secretary
(c) only officers of the same rank
(d) any other officer considered necessary
Ans. (d) any other officer considered necessary — Explanation: Section 5(4) does not restrict the officers whose help can be sought. [Ref: Section 5(4)]

22. Consider: (i) APIOs decide RTI applications. (ii) APIOs forward applications to the PIO. Which is correct?
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) Both (i) and (ii)
(d) Neither (i) nor (ii)
Ans. (b) Only (ii) — Explanation: APIOs only receive and forward; PIOs decide applications. [Ref: Section 5(2)]

23. The additional five days under the proviso to Section 5(2) apply because
(a) the information is older than 20 years
(b) the application is first received by an APIO who must forward it
(c) the applicant asked for urgent information
(d) the information involves a third party
Ans. (b) the application is first received by an APIO who must forward it — Explanation: The proviso accounts for forwarding time through an APIO. [Ref: Section 5(2), proviso]

24. A PIO's duty under Section 5(3) is best described as
(a) hearing first appeals
(b) framing RTI rules
(c) auditing public authorities
(d) dealing with requests and assisting persons seeking information
Ans. (d) dealing with requests and assisting persons seeking information — Explanation: Section 5(3) describes the PIO's core duty. [Ref: Section 5(3)]

25. The deemed PIO under Section 5(5) can be subjected to
(a) no action under the Act
(b) only a warning
(c) penalty under Section 20, as a PIO for contravention purposes
(d) only an inquiry under the Commissions of Inquiry Act
Ans. (c) penalty under Section 20, as a PIO for contravention purposes — Explanation: Being treated as a PIO, such an officer can face penalties for contraventions. [Ref: Sections 5(5) and 20]

Next: Set 7. See all sets under the label RTI Act. For exam preparation, attempt the full set before checking answers and revise the topic of every question you miss.

GFR 2017 MCQ Set 7: Control of Expenditure against Budget (25 Questions with Answers)

2026-10-27T09:00:00.000+05:30

This is Set 7 of 48 in the smartvidya question bank on the General Financial Rules (GFR) 2017, updated up to 31.01.2026. Part II: Budget formulation and implementation. This set covers Rules 57 to 60: control registers, returns and reconciliation.

Set 7: Control of Expenditure against Budget

1. The Departments of the Central Government exercise control of expenditure against grants through
(a) the CAG
(b) Heads of Departments, other Controlling Officers and Disbursing Officers subordinate to them
(c) the Reserve Bank
(d) the vendors
Ans. (b) Heads of Departments, other Controlling Officers and Disbursing Officers subordinate to them — Explanation: Rule 57(1) describes the chain of control of expenditure. [Ref: Rule 57(1)]

2. Charges against a Grant or Appropriation can be authorised
(a) only after audit
(b) at any time within two years
(c) only during the financial year of the grant; none after its expiry
(d) up to three months after the year
Ans. (c) only during the financial year of the grant; none after its expiry — Explanation: Rule 57(2) bars authorising charges after the expiry of the financial year. [Ref: Rule 57(2)]

3. Since re-appropriation between voted and charged portions or revenue and capital sections is not permissible, an excess in any one portion is treated as
(a) an excess in the Grant or Appropriation
(b) a saving in the other portion
(c) a permissible adjustment
(d) a matter for the Contingency Fund only
Ans. (a) an excess in the Grant or Appropriation — Explanation: Rule 57(3) treats such an excess as an excess in the grant. [Ref: Rule 57(3)]

4. The Drawing and Disbursing Officer must prepare and present bills for "charged" and "voted" expenditure
(a) through the Finance Ministry
(b) only at year end
(c) together in one bill
(d) separately
Ans. (d) separately — Explanation: Rule 57(4)(i)(a) requires separate bills for charged and voted expenditure. [Ref: Rule 57(4)(i)]

5. On each bill, the DDO must enter the complete classification from Major Head down to
(a) the Object Head of account
(b) the Sub-Major Head only
(c) the Minor Head only
(d) the Demand number only
Ans. (a) the Object Head of account — Explanation: Rule 57(4)(i)(b) also requires distribution over object heads where a bill has several. [Ref: Rule 57(4)(i)]

6. Registers maintained by DDOs for allocations under each minor or sub-head are in
(a) Form GFR 3
(b) Form GFR 8
(c) Form GFR 5
(d) Form GFR 9
Ans. (c) Form GFR 5 — Explanation: Rule 57(4)(ii) prescribes Form GFR 5, physically or electronically. [Ref: Rule 57(4)(ii)]

7. A copy of entries made in the GFR 5 register during the preceding month is sent to the Controlling Officer on
(a) the fifteenth day of each month
(b) the third day of each month
(c) the last day of each month
(d) the first day of each month
Ans. (b) the third day of each month — Explanation: Rule 57(4)(iii) prescribes the third day; a nil statement is sent if there are no entries. [Ref: Rule 57(4)(iii)]

8. The broadsheet maintained by the Controlling Officer to monitor receipt of returns from DDOs is in
(a) Form GFR 7
(b) Form GFR 5
(c) Form GFR 1
(d) Form GFR 6
Ans. (d) Form GFR 6 — Explanation: Rule 57(4)(iv) prescribes Form GFR 6 (GFR 2017). [Ref: Rule 57(4)(iv)]

9. The Controlling Officer compiles a statement incorporating totals from DDOs, his own registers and adjustments, in
(a) Form GFR 6
(b) Form GFR 9
(c) Form GFR 3-A
(d) Form GFR 7
Ans. (d) Form GFR 7 — Explanation: Rule 57(4)(vi) prescribes Form GFR 7 (GFR 2017). [Ref: Rule 57(4)(vi)]

10. The consolidated account showing complete expenditure from the grant up to the end of the preceding month is prepared by the Head of Department in
(a) Form GFR 9
(b) Form GFR 7
(c) Form GFR 5
(d) Form GFR 8
Ans. (d) Form GFR 8 — Explanation: Rule 57(4)(viii) prescribes Form GFR 8 (GFR 2017). [Ref: Rule 57(4)(viii)]

11. Monthly reconciliation of departmental figures with the Accounts Officer's books is the joint responsibility of
(a) the DDO and the vendor
(b) the Head of the Department and the Accounts Officer
(c) the Secretary and the Minister
(d) the CAG and the PAO
Ans. (b) the Head of the Department and the Accounts Officer — Explanation: Rule 57(5) makes both jointly responsible. [Ref: Rule 57(5)]

12. DDOs maintain a Bill Register, noting all bills presented to the PAO, in
(a) Form GFR 1
(b) Form GFR 5
(c) Form TR 28-A
(d) Form GAR-6
Ans. (c) Form TR 28-A — Explanation: Rule 57(5)(i) prescribes Form TR 28-A, including status of e-payments on PFMS. [Ref: Rule 57(5)(i)]

13. The DDO furnishes to the PAO a certificate of agreement of figures by
(a) the fifteenth day of the same month
(b) the third day of the month
(c) the last day of the month following the month of accounts
(d) the end of the quarter
Ans. (c) the last day of the month following the month of accounts — Explanation: Rule 57(5)(iii) prescribes this timeline after tallying figures. [Ref: Rule 57(5)(iii)]

14. The Head of Department furnishes a quarterly certificate to the Principal Accounts Officer certifying correctness of figures by
(a) the last day of the quarter
(b) the 15th of the second following month after the end of the quarter
(c) the 3rd of the following month
(d) 31st March only
Ans. (b) the 15th of the second following month after the end of the quarter — Explanation: Rule 57(5)(iv) prescribes this quarterly certificate. [Ref: Rule 57(5)(iv)]

15. Departmental figures of expenditure in Form GFR 8 are obtained from Heads of Departments by
(a) 31st March
(b) the 15th of the month following the month to which they relate
(c) the end of the quarter
(d) the 3rd of the same month
Ans. (b) the 15th of the month following the month to which they relate — Explanation: Rule 57(6) prescribes the 15th of the following month. [Ref: Rule 57(6)]

16. If Accounts Office figures are higher than departmental figures, which are assumed correct?
(a) The departmental figures
(b) Neither, until audit
(c) The average of both
(d) The Accounts Office figures
Ans. (d) The Accounts Office figures — Explanation: Rule 57(6) assumes Accounts figures correct since Appropriation Accounts are based on booked figures. [Ref: Rule 57(6)]

17. Statements of physical progress of schemes must show
(a) only the vendor list
(b) scheme name, budget provision, progressive expenditure, physical progress and reasons for shortfall or excess
(c) only the names of officers
(d) only the expenditure of the last month
Ans. (b) scheme name, budget provision, progressive expenditure, physical progress and reasons for shortfall or excess — Explanation: Rule 57(7) prescribes the contents of physical progress statements. [Ref: Rule 57(7)]

18. A broadsheet to watch prompt receipt of the various returns month to month is maintained in
(a) Form GFR 9
(b) Form GFR 7
(c) Form GFR 3
(d) Form GFR 6
Ans. (a) Form GFR 9 — Explanation: Rule 57(8) prescribes Form GFR 9 (GFR 2017). [Ref: Rule 57(8)]

19. Controlling Officers obtain liability statements from spending authorities every month starting from
(a) October in each financial year
(b) April in each financial year
(c) January in each financial year
(d) March in each financial year
Ans. (a) October in each financial year — Explanation: Rule 58 requires liability statements in Form GFR 3-A from October. [Ref: Rule 58]

20. Liability statements from spending authorities are in Form GFR 3-A, and the Liability Register is in
(a) Form GFR 5
(b) Form GFR 1
(c) Form GFR 3
(d) Form GFR 9
Ans. (c) Form GFR 3 — Explanation: Rule 58 prescribes Form GFR 3 for the Liability Register. [Ref: Rule 58]

21. A Head of Department or Controlling Officer must be in a position to estimate the likelihood of savings or excesses
(a) every quarter
(b) once a year
(c) only in March
(d) every month
Ans. (d) every month — Explanation: Rule 59 requires monthly estimation and regularisation as per Rule 62 of GFR 2017. [Ref: Rule 59]

22. The Accounts Officer reports disproportionate expenditure to the Head of Department
(a) immediately on its first appearance
(b) only if asked
(c) through the CAG
(d) at the end of the year
Ans. (a) immediately on its first appearance — Explanation: Rule 60 requires immediate reporting, particularly for recurring items. [Ref: Rule 60]

23. Ultimate responsibility for control of expenditure against a grant rests with
(a) the authority administering the grant, not the Accounts Officer
(b) the CAG
(c) Parliament
(d) the Accounts Officer
Ans. (a) the authority administering the grant, not the Accounts Officer — Explanation: Rule 60 places ultimate responsibility on the administering authority. [Ref: Rule 60]

24. The PAOs' monthly extracts to DDOs for May to March also contain
(a) vendor details
(b) next year's estimates
(c) progressive figures
(d) audit objections
Ans. (c) progressive figures — Explanation: Rule 57(5)(ii) requires progressive figures in statements for May to March. [Ref: Rule 57(5)(ii)]

25. If there are no entries in the GFR 5 register in a month, the DDO must send
(a) nothing
(b) the previous month's statement again
(c) a nil statement
(d) a certificate from the CAG
Ans. (c) a nil statement — Explanation: Rule 57(4)(iii) requires a nil statement when there are no entries. [Ref: Rule 57(4)(iii)]

Next: Set 8. See all sets under the label GFR 2017. For exam preparation, attempt the full set before checking answers and revise the topic of every question you miss.

CCS (Conduct) Rules MCQ Set 25: Rule 16(4) – Lending, borrowing and deposits (25 Questions with Answers)

2026-10-27T06:00:00.000+05:30

This is Set 25 of 42 in the smartvidya question bank on the Central Civil Services (Conduct) Rules, 1964. Part VI: Investment, debt and property. This set covers Rule 16(4)(i)(a) and (b), the provisos, Rule 16(4)(ii), and GoI decisions on sureties, fixed deposits and ex post facto sanction.

Set 25: Rule 16(4) – Lending, borrowing and deposits

1. Under Rule 16(4)(i)(a), a Government servant shall not lend, borrow or deposit money with which persons, except in the ordinary course of business with a bank or public limited company?
(a) Any public limited company
(b) Any relative
(c) Any person, firm or private limited company within the local limits of his authority or with whom he is likely to have official dealings
(d) Any nationalised bank
Ans. (c) Any person, firm or private limited company within the local limits of his authority or with whom he is likely to have official dealings — Explanation: Rule 16(4)(i)(a) targets persons, firms and private limited companies within the local limits of his authority or likely to have official dealings with him. [Ref: Rule 16(4)(i)(a)]

2. Rule 16(4)(i) does not apply to transactions in the ordinary course of business with:
(a) A private moneylender
(b) A private limited company in his jurisdiction
(c) A contractor of his office
(d) A bank or a public limited company
Ans. (d) A bank or a public limited company — Explanation: The rule opens with "save in the ordinary course of business with a bank or a public limited company". [Ref: Rule 16(4)(i)]

3. Under Rule 16(4)(i)(b), a Government servant shall not:
(a) Lend a small interest-free sum to a friend
(b) Lend money to any person at interest or in a manner whereby return in money or in kind is charged or paid
(c) Take a home loan from a bank
(d) Deposit money in a post office savings account
Ans. (b) Lend money to any person at interest or in a manner whereby return in money or in kind is charged or paid — Explanation: Rule 16(4)(i)(b) bars lending money at interest, or where a return in money or kind is charged or paid, to any person. [Ref: Rule 16(4)(i)(b)]

4. Which of the following is permitted by the first proviso to Rule 16(4)(i)?
(a) Giving or accepting a purely temporary loan of a small amount, free of interest, to or from a relative or personal friend
(b) Lending money at interest to a neighbour
(c) Borrowing from a contractor of his office
(d) Lending money to a firm in his jurisdiction
Ans. (a) Giving or accepting a purely temporary loan of a small amount, free of interest, to or from a relative or personal friend — Explanation: The first proviso allows purely temporary, small, interest-free loans with relatives or personal friends, credit accounts with bona fide tradesmen and advances of pay to private employees. [Ref: Rule 16(4)(i), first proviso]

5. Under the first proviso to Rule 16(4)(i), a Government servant may operate a credit account with:
(a) A contractor having official dealings
(b) A subordinate
(c) A bona fide tradesman
(d) A private moneylender
Ans. (c) A bona fide tradesman — Explanation: The proviso permits operating a credit account with a bona fide tradesman, such as a grocer. [Ref: Rule 16(4)(i), first proviso]

6. May a Government servant give an advance of pay to his private domestic employee?
(a) Only with previous sanction
(b) Yes, the first proviso to Rule 16(4)(i) expressly permits it
(c) Only if charged interest
(d) No, it is lending money
Ans. (b) Yes, the first proviso to Rule 16(4)(i) expressly permits it — Explanation: The first proviso permits making an advance of pay to his private employee. [Ref: Rule 16(4)(i), first proviso]

7. According to the second proviso to Rule 16(4)(i), the restrictions do not apply to transactions entered into:
(a) With the previous sanction of the Government
(b) Below Rs. 10,000
(c) With any relative
(d) Outside India
Ans. (a) With the previous sanction of the Government — Explanation: The second proviso excludes any transaction entered into with the previous sanction of the Government. [Ref: Rule 16(4)(i), second proviso]

8. Under Rule 16(4)(ii), what must a Government servant do when appointed or transferred to a post that would involve him in a breach of Rule 16(2) or 16(4)?
(a) Refuse the transfer
(b) Sell all investments within six months
(c) Resign from the post
(d) Forthwith report the circumstances to the prescribed authority and act as ordered
Ans. (d) Forthwith report the circumstances to the prescribed authority and act as ordered — Explanation: Rule 16(4)(ii) requires him to forthwith report to the prescribed authority and thereafter act in accordance with its orders. [Ref: Rule 16(4)(ii)]

9. A Tehsildar borrows Rs. 2 lakh at interest from a local businessman in his tehsil. Which rule is breached?
(a) No rule, since it is a private loan
(b) Rule 17 only
(c) Rule 16(4)(i)(a), since the lender is within the local limits of his authority
(d) Rule 13 only
Ans. (c) Rule 16(4)(i)(a), since the lender is within the local limits of his authority — Explanation: Borrowing from a person within the local limits of his authority, other than a bank or public limited company, is barred without previous sanction. [Ref: Rule 16(4)(i)(a)]

10. Rule 16(4)(i)(a) also bars a Government servant from otherwise placing himself under any:
(a) Pecuniary obligation to such person, firm or private limited company
(b) Obligation to his service association
(c) Obligation to pay taxes
(d) Moral obligation to his family
Ans. (a) Pecuniary obligation to such person, firm or private limited company — Explanation: Besides lending, borrowing and depositing, Rule 16(4)(i)(a) bars placing himself under any pecuniary obligation to such persons or firms. [Ref: Rule 16(4)(i)(a)]

11. Rule 16(4)(i)(a) covers transactions "as principal or agent". This means:
(a) Only transactions by his agents are covered
(b) He cannot do such transactions for others as their agent either
(c) Only transactions for himself are covered
(d) Agents are exempt
Ans. (b) He cannot do such transactions for others as their agent either — Explanation: The words "as a principal or an agent" cover transactions for himself and those he undertakes on behalf of others. [Ref: Rule 16(4)(i)(a)]

12. A Government servant lends Rs. 50,000 to a friend at 12% annual interest. The friend has no official dealings. Is this permitted?
(a) No, Rule 16(4)(i)(b) bars lending to any person at interest
(b) Yes, if he reports within one month
(c) Yes, since the amount is small
(d) Yes, since the friend has no official dealings
Ans. (a) No, Rule 16(4)(i)(b) bars lending to any person at interest — Explanation: Rule 16(4)(i)(b) bars lending money to any person at interest, whatever the relationship. Only small, temporary, interest-free loans to friends are allowed. [Ref: Rule 16(4)(i)(b)]

13. Under Government instructions of 25.05.1966, senior officers should NOT:
(a) Lend to their private employees
(b) Take loans from banks
(c) Stand surety for relatives
(d) Seek surety from their subordinates for loans
Ans. (d) Seek surety from their subordinates for loans — Explanation: The 1966 instructions say senior officers should not ask subordinates to stand surety for them, because it places the subordinate under pressure. [Ref: Rule 16(4); GoI decision dt 25.05.1966]

14. Under Government instructions of 12.05.1982, how are fixed deposits treated under Rule 16?
(a) All deposits are prohibited
(b) All deposits need previous sanction
(c) Bank deposits are exempt, while deposits with private companies are treated as loans
(d) Deposits with private companies are exempt
Ans. (c) Bank deposits are exempt, while deposits with private companies are treated as loans — Explanation: The 1982 instructions exempt bank deposits but treat deposits with private companies as loans, bringing them within the restrictions. [Ref: Rule 16(4); GoI decision dt 12.05.1982]

15. Government instructions of 26.06.1961 under Rule 16 say that ex post facto sanction for transactions:
(a) Is available only to Group 'A' officers
(b) Is the normal procedure
(c) Is never possible
(d) Is discouraged; sanction should be taken in advance
Ans. (d) Is discouraged; sanction should be taken in advance — Explanation: The 1961 instructions discourage seeking ex post facto sanction. Where previous sanction is required, it should be obtained before the transaction. [Ref: Rule 16; GoI decision dt 26.06.1961]

16. A Government servant deposits money with a private chit company in his jurisdiction that has dealings with his office. Which statement is correct?
(a) It is permitted if the interest is low
(b) It is barred by Rule 16(4)(i)(a), since deposits with such parties are covered
(c) It is permitted as a bank deposit
(d) It needs only an intimation
Ans. (b) It is barred by Rule 16(4)(i)(a), since deposits with such parties are covered — Explanation: Rule 16(4)(i)(a) covers depositing money with persons, firms or private limited companies within his jurisdiction or likely to have official dealings. It is not a bank. [Ref: Rule 16(4)(i)(a)]

17. Consider these statements about Rule 16(4): 1. A small temporary interest-free loan from a friend is permitted. 2. An advance of pay to a private employee is permitted. 3. Lending money at interest to a relative is permitted. Which are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Ans. (a) 1 and 2 only — Explanation: The first proviso permits the first two. Rule 16(4)(i)(b) bars lending at interest to any person, relatives included. [Ref: Rule 16(4)]

18. A Government servant is transferred as District Collector to the district where his father-in-law's private firm has large loans from him. What must he do?
(a) Nothing, since the loans were given earlier
(b) Forthwith report the circumstances to the prescribed authority under Rule 16(4)(ii)
(c) Recover the loans within a week
(d) Seek transfer without informing anyone
Ans. (b) Forthwith report the circumstances to the prescribed authority under Rule 16(4)(ii) — Explanation: When a posting would involve him in a breach of Rule 16(4), Rule 16(4)(ii) requires him to report forthwith and follow the authority's orders. [Ref: Rule 16(4)(ii)]

19. A Government servant takes a home loan from a nationalised bank. Does Rule 16(4) restrict this?
(a) Yes, he needs previous sanction
(b) Yes, if the bank is in his district
(c) No, transactions in the ordinary course of business with a bank are excluded
(d) Only if the loan exceeds Rs. 10 lakh
Ans. (c) No, transactions in the ordinary course of business with a bank are excluded — Explanation: Rule 16(4)(i) excludes transactions in the ordinary course of business with a bank. A mortgage for a house may however involve reporting under Rule 18 of the Conduct Rules. [Ref: Rule 16(4)(i)]

20. A Government servant borrows from a public limited company in the ordinary course of its business. Under Rule 16(4)(i):
(a) It is barred
(b) It is permitted only if interest-free
(c) It is permitted, as transactions with a public limited company in the ordinary course of business are excluded
(d) It needs sanction of the President
Ans. (c) It is permitted, as transactions with a public limited company in the ordinary course of business are excluded — Explanation: The exclusion in Rule 16(4)(i) covers both banks and public limited companies, in the ordinary course of business. [Ref: Rule 16(4)(i)]

21. A Government servant buys groceries on monthly credit from the local shop. Is this permitted?
(a) Only with previous sanction
(b) Only if paid within seven days
(c) No, it is borrowing
(d) Yes, operating a credit account with a bona fide tradesman is permitted
Ans. (d) Yes, operating a credit account with a bona fide tradesman is permitted — Explanation: The first proviso to Rule 16(4)(i) permits operating a credit account with a bona fide tradesman. [Ref: Rule 16(4)(i), first proviso]

22. Which authority receives the report under Rule 16(4)(ii)?
(a) The Central Vigilance Commission
(b) The prescribed authority
(c) The Government in every case
(d) The Reserve Bank of India
Ans. (b) The prescribed authority — Explanation: The report under Rule 16(4)(ii) goes to the prescribed authority, who then passes orders. [Ref: Rule 16(4)(ii)]

23. Rule 16(4)(i) applies to transactions done by the Government servant:
(a) Himself, or through any member of his family or any other person acting on his behalf
(b) Only himself
(c) Only through his bank
(d) Only through his spouse
Ans. (a) Himself, or through any member of his family or any other person acting on his behalf — Explanation: The rule covers transactions made himself or through any family member or any other person acting on his behalf. [Ref: Rule 16(4)(i)]

24. A subordinate is asked by his superior to stand as guarantor for the superior's personal loan. Which Government instruction discourages this?
(a) The 07.02.2019 OM on shares
(b) The 18.09.1976 instructions on directors' quota
(c) The 12.05.1982 instructions on fixed deposits
(d) The 25.05.1966 instructions on seniors not seeking surety from subordinates
Ans. (d) The 25.05.1966 instructions on seniors not seeking surety from subordinates — Explanation: The 1966 instructions discourage senior officers from seeking surety from subordinates. [Ref: Rule 16(4); GoI decision dt 25.05.1966]

25. The words "purely temporary", "small amount" and "free of interest" in the first proviso to Rule 16(4)(i) apply to loans with:
(a) A relative or a personal friend
(b) A bank
(c) A subordinate
(d) A contractor
Ans. (a) A relative or a personal friend — Explanation: The proviso permits giving to, or accepting from, a relative or personal friend a purely temporary loan of a small amount free of interest. [Ref: Rule 16(4)(i), first proviso]

Want all 1,050 questions in one PDF? The CCS (Conduct) Rules ebook has every set with answers, explanations, rule references and quick-revision tables. Get the ebook

Next: Set 26. See all sets under the label CCS Conduct Rules. For exam preparation, attempt the full set before checking answers and note the rule number of every question you miss.

Teaching Aptitude MCQ Set 28: Programmed Instruction and Mastery Learning (25 Questions with Answers)

2026-10-26T21:00:00.000+05:30

This is Set 28 of 60 in the smartvidya question bank on Teaching Aptitude (UGC NET Paper 1, Unit I). Part IV: Methods of teaching. This set covers Linear and branching programming, PSI, CAI and mastery learning.

Set 28: Programmed Instruction and Mastery Learning

1. Linear programmed instruction was developed by
(a) Sidney Pressey
(b) B.F. Skinner
(c) Norman Crowder
(d) Thomas Gilbert
Ans. (b) B.F. Skinner — Explanation: Skinner applied operant conditioning to design linear programmes with small steps and immediate confirmation. [Ref: Skinner, programmed instruction]

2. Branching programming was developed by
(a) B.F. Skinner
(b) Fred Keller
(c) Thomas Gilbert
(d) Norman A. Crowder
Ans. (d) Norman A. Crowder — Explanation: Crowder's branching or intrinsic programming directs learners to different frames depending on their answers. [Ref: Crowder, branching programming]

3. Mathetics, a form of programming based on backward chaining, was developed by
(a) Robert Glaser
(b) B.F. Skinner
(c) Thomas F. Gilbert
(d) Norman Crowder
Ans. (c) Thomas F. Gilbert — Explanation: Gilbert's mathetics (1962) teaches complex tasks by starting with the last step. [Ref: Gilbert, mathetics]

4. An early "teaching machine" for self-testing was designed in the 1920s by
(a) Sidney Pressey
(b) Fred Keller
(c) B.F. Skinner
(d) Edward Thorndike
Ans. (a) Sidney Pressey — Explanation: Pressey's machine presented multiple-choice questions and gave immediate feedback. [Ref: Pressey, teaching machine]

5. Which of the following is a principle of programmed instruction?
(a) Learning without responding
(b) Small steps with immediate feedback
(c) Large steps without feedback
(d) Teacher-paced group instruction
Ans. (b) Small steps with immediate feedback — Explanation: Content is broken into small frames, learners respond actively and get immediate confirmation. [Ref: Principles of programmed instruction]

6. In programmed instruction, each small unit of content is called a
(a) chapter
(b) module
(c) syllabus
(d) frame
Ans. (d) frame — Explanation: Frames present information and require a response from the learner. [Ref: Programmed instruction]

7. The principle of self-pacing in programmed instruction means
(a) the teacher fixes the speed for all
(b) each learner proceeds at his own speed
(c) learners must finish in one hour
(d) the whole class moves together
Ans. (b) each learner proceeds at his own speed — Explanation: Self-pacing allows for individual differences in learning rate. [Ref: Principles of programmed instruction]

8. In linear programming, the learner's response is usually
(a) never required
(b) an essay
(c) constructed, such as filling in a blank
(d) always multiple-choice
Ans. (c) constructed, such as filling in a blank — Explanation: Skinner preferred constructed responses so that learners produce the correct answer themselves. [Ref: Linear programming]

9. In branching programming, a learner who chooses a wrong answer is
(a) punished
(b) asked to leave the programme
(c) directed to a remedial frame explaining the error
(d) given the next frame anyway
Ans. (c) directed to a remedial frame explaining the error — Explanation: Remedial frames correct misunderstanding before the learner returns to the main track. [Ref: Crowder, branching programming]

10. Programmed instruction is based mainly on the theory of
(a) operant conditioning
(b) psychoanalysis
(c) Gestalt insight
(d) humanistic psychology
Ans. (a) operant conditioning — Explanation: Active responding and immediate reinforcement come from Skinner's operant conditioning. [Ref: Skinner, operant conditioning]

11. The Personalized System of Instruction (PSI), also called the Keller Plan, was developed by
(a) Helen Parkhurst
(b) B.S. Bloom
(c) Fred S. Keller
(d) B.F. Skinner
Ans. (c) Fred S. Keller — Explanation: Fred Keller described PSI in 1968; it uses self-pacing, mastery requirements and student proctors. [Ref: Keller (1968)]

12. A distinctive feature of the Keller Plan is the use of
(a) proctors who test and tutor students
(b) no written materials
(c) large lectures as the main source of content
(d) group examinations only
Ans. (a) proctors who test and tutor students — Explanation: Proctors, often advanced students, give immediate feedback on unit tests. [Ref: Keller (1968)]

13. Mastery learning was proposed by
(a) Jean Piaget
(b) B.F. Skinner
(c) Robert Gagne
(d) Benjamin S. Bloom
Ans. (d) Benjamin S. Bloom — Explanation: Bloom's "Learning for Mastery" (1968) argued that most students can master content if given enough time and help. [Ref: Bloom (1968)]

14. Bloom's mastery learning was based on John B. Carroll's
(a) cone of experience
(b) model of school learning
(c) hierarchy of needs
(d) theory of multiple intelligences
Ans. (b) model of school learning — Explanation: Carroll (1963) proposed that the degree of learning depends on time spent relative to time needed. [Ref: Carroll (1963)]

15. In mastery learning, students who do not reach mastery on a formative test receive
(a) lower grades permanently
(b) no further help
(c) corrective activities before moving on
(d) a different subject
Ans. (c) corrective activities before moving on — Explanation: Feedback and correctives help students reach mastery; those who master may do enrichment. [Ref: Bloom (1968)]

16. Computer-Assisted Instruction (CAI) includes modes such as
(a) blackboard writing only
(b) drill and practice, tutorial, simulation and games
(c) dictation only
(d) corporal punishment
Ans. (b) drill and practice, tutorial, simulation and games — Explanation: CAI programs present content, give practice and feedback, and simulate situations. [Ref: Computer-assisted instruction]

17. PLATO, one of the earliest large computer-based education systems, was developed at
(a) MIT
(b) Oxford University
(c) the University of Illinois
(d) Stanford University
Ans. (c) the University of Illinois — Explanation: PLATO (Programmed Logic for Automatic Teaching Operations) began at the University of Illinois in 1960. [Ref: PLATO system]

18. Which of the following is a limitation of programmed instruction?
(a) It gives no feedback
(b) It requires the learner to be passive
(c) It cannot be self-paced
(d) It may become monotonous and limits social interaction
Ans. (d) It may become monotonous and limits social interaction — Explanation: Working alone through small frames can be dull and offers little discussion. [Ref: Programmed instruction]

19. The "student testing" principle in programmed instruction means
(a) students test the teacher
(b) tests are avoided
(c) students write an annual examination
(d) the programme is tried out with learners and revised on the basis of their responses
Ans. (d) the programme is tried out with learners and revised on the basis of their responses — Explanation: Programmes are validated by analysing learners' errors and improving frames. [Ref: Principles of programmed instruction]

20. Linear programmes aim at a
(a) very low error rate by learners
(b) high error rate to challenge learners
(c) random error rate
(d) zero feedback
Ans. (a) very low error rate by learners — Explanation: Skinner believed errors should be minimised, so steps are small and well cued. [Ref: Linear programming]

21. Which type of programming is also called "intrinsic programming"?
(a) Mathetics
(b) Linear programming
(c) Skip programming
(d) Branching programming
Ans. (d) Branching programming — Explanation: Crowder's branching programme is called intrinsic because the learner's response determines the path. [Ref: Crowder, branching programming]

22. Skinner's well-known article criticising traditional teaching and recommending teaching machines is
(a) "Democracy and Education"
(b) "The Science of Learning and the Art of Teaching"
(c) "The Process of Education"
(d) "Pedagogy of the Oppressed"
Ans. (b) "The Science of Learning and the Art of Teaching" — Explanation: Skinner's 1954 article argued that classroom reinforcement was inadequate and proposed teaching machines. [Ref: Skinner (1954)]

23. Which feature is common to programmed instruction, PSI and mastery learning?
(a) Learners must master each unit before moving on, with feedback
(b) The teacher lectures only
(c) No assessment is used
(d) Learners move ahead regardless of performance
Ans. (a) Learners must master each unit before moving on, with feedback — Explanation: All three emphasise mastery, feedback and individual pace. [Ref: Individualised instruction]

24. Intelligent tutoring systems differ from early CAI in that they
(a) adapt instruction based on a model of the individual learner's knowledge
(b) give no feedback
(c) work only on paper
(d) present the same frames to every learner
Ans. (a) adapt instruction based on a model of the individual learner's knowledge — Explanation: They use artificial intelligence to diagnose learner errors and adapt guidance. [Ref: Intelligent tutoring systems]

25. The "active responding" principle of programmed instruction means that
(a) the teacher responds on behalf of the learner
(b) the learner only reads without responding
(c) responses are collected only at the end of the year
(d) the learner must make a response to every frame
Ans. (d) the learner must make a response to every frame — Explanation: Skinner held that learning occurs through the learner's own responses, which are then confirmed. [Ref: Principles of programmed instruction]

Next: Set 29. See all sets under the label Teaching Aptitude. For exam preparation, attempt the full set before checking answers and revise the topic of every question you miss.

DFPR 2024 MCQs with Answers – Set 26: Object Heads – Accounting Adjustments, Codes and Classification Rules

2026-10-26T18:00:00.000+05:30

Multiple choice questions on the Delegation of Financial Powers Rules, 2024 (DFPR 2024) with answers and explanations. This is Set 26 of 44, covering Annexure-I, Object Class VIII and Note. Each set has 25 questions. Try each question first, then tap Show answer to check your answer and read the explanation.

1. Amounts kept under suspense heads for want of complete details for adjustment under the final head of account are booked under
(a) 43 Suspense
(b) 63 Inter Account Transfers
(c) 70 Deduct Recoveries
(d) 49 Other Revenue Expenditure
Ans. (a) 43 Suspense — Explanation: Object Head 43 Suspense includes amounts kept under suspense heads for want of complete details for adjustment under the final head of account. [Ref: Annexure-I, Sl. 55]

2. Depreciation charged on assets by commercial departments is booked under Object Head
(a) 61 Depreciation
(b) 62 Reserves
(c) 29 Repair and Maintenance
(d) 64 Writes Off of Losses
Ans. (a) 61 Depreciation — Explanation: Object Head 61 Depreciation includes depreciation charged on the assets by commercial departments. [Ref: Annexure-I, Sl. 56]

3. Provision of reserves is booked under Object Head
(a) 61 Depreciation
(b) 62 Reserves
(c) 43 Suspense
(d) 54 Investment
Ans. (b) 62 Reserves — Explanation: Object Head 62 Reserves includes the provision of reserves. [Ref: Annexure-I, Sl. 57]

4. Transfer of an amount from one head to another is done through Object Head
(a) 43 Suspense
(b) 70 Deduct Recoveries
(c) 69 Deduct Receipts
(d) 63 Inter Account Transfers
Ans. (d) 63 Inter Account Transfers — Explanation: Object Head 63 Inter Account Transfers is used for transfer of amount from one head to another. [Ref: Annexure-I, Sl. 58]

5. Write-off of irrecoverable loans and trading losses is booked under
(a) 64 Writes Off of Losses
(b) 70 Deduct Recoveries
(c) 61 Depreciation
(d) 44 Loss in Exchange
Ans. (a) 64 Writes Off of Losses — Explanation: Object Head 64 Writes Off of Losses includes write-off of irrecoverable loans and trading losses. [Ref: Annexure-I, Sl. 59]

6. Amounts paid from the receipt heads by adjusting as reduction in receipts are booked under
(a) 43 Suspense
(b) 63 Inter Account Transfers
(c) 70 Deduct Recoveries
(d) 69 Deduct Receipts
Ans. (d) 69 Deduct Receipts — Explanation: Object Head 69 Deduct Receipts includes amounts paid from the receipt heads by adjusting as reduction in receipts. [Ref: Annexure-I, Sl. 60]

7. Object Head 70 Deduct Recoveries is operated to
(a) Record suspense items
(b) Record depreciation
(c) Record receipts
(d) Adjust overpayments in reduction of expenditure
Ans. (d) Adjust overpayments in reduction of expenditure — Explanation: Object Head 70 Deduct Recoveries is operated to adjust overpayments in reduction of expenditure. [Ref: Annexure-I, Sl. 61]

8. Object Class VIII in Annexure-I is titled
(a) Financial Assets
(b) Misc. Revenue Expenditure
(c) Accounting Adjustments
(d) Non-Financial Assets
Ans. (c) Accounting Adjustments — Explanation: Object Class VIII – Accounting Adjustments includes Object Heads 43, 61, 62, 63, 64, 69 and 70. [Ref: Annexure-I]

9. How many Object Classes are there in Annexure-I?
(a) Six
(b) Seven
(c) Eight
(d) Ten
Ans. (c) Eight — Explanation: Annexure-I has eight Object Classes: I Compensation to Employees, II Social Security, III Goods and Services, IV Aid and Assistance, V Misc. Revenue, VI Non-Financial Assets, VII Financial Assets, VIII Accounting Adjustments. [Ref: Annexure-I]

10. As per the Note to Annexure-I, expenditure on improvement or upgradation of assets, including rehabilitation, overhaul and retrofitting, is booked under
(a) 27 Minor Civil and Electric Works
(b) 29 Repair and Maintenance
(c) Capital expenditure (Assets) against the relevant assets
(d) 49 Other Revenue Expenditure
Ans. (c) Capital expenditure (Assets) against the relevant assets — Explanation: The Note states that expenditure on improvement/upgradation of assets, including rehabilitation, overhaul and retrofitting, will be booked under the object head class Capital expenditure (Assets) against relevant assets. [Ref: Annexure-I, Note]

11. Lease charges for equipment whose ownership is transferable to Government are classified as
(a) 13 Office Expenses
(b) Capital expenditure under the relevant Object Heads
(c) 29 Repair and Maintenance
(d) 18 Rent for others
Ans. (b) Capital expenditure under the relevant Object Heads — Explanation: Object Head 18 and the Note to Annexure-I both provide that lease charges for equipment whose ownership is transferable to Government are classified as capital expenditure. [Ref: Annexure-I, Sl. 15 and Note]

12. Which of the following Object Head codes is correctly matched?
(a) 28 – Advertising and Publicity
(b) 26 – Professional Services
(c) 27 – Repair and Maintenance
(d) 26 – Advertising and Publicity
Ans. (d) 26 – Advertising and Publicity — Explanation: 26 is Advertising and Publicity, 27 Minor Civil and Electric Works, 28 Professional Services and 29 Repair and Maintenance. [Ref: Annexure-I]

13. The code of the Object Head "Grants for creation of Capital Assets" is
(a) 35
(b) 36
(c) 37
(d) 31
Ans. (a) 35 — Explanation: 31 is Grants-in-aid – General, 35 Grants for creation of Capital Assets, 36 Grants-in-aid – Salaries and 37 Aid Material and Equipment. [Ref: Annexure-I, Sl. 31]

14. Which of the following Object Heads belongs to the Capital Expenditure (Assets) category?
(a) 21 Materials and Supplies
(b) 13 Office Expenses
(c) 29 Repair and Maintenance
(d) 74 Furniture & Fixtures
Ans. (d) 74 Furniture & Fixtures — Explanation: 74 Furniture & Fixtures is in Object Class VI – Non-Financial Assets under Capital Expenditure. The others are revenue heads in Object Class III. [Ref: Annexure-I]

15. Object Head 60 "Other Capital Expenditure" includes
(a) All other capital expenditure which cannot be classified under any of the other capital object heads
(b) All revenue expenditure not classified elsewhere
(c) Only land purchases
(d) Suspense items
Ans. (a) All other capital expenditure which cannot be classified under any of the other capital object heads — Explanation: Object Head 60 includes all other capital expenditure which cannot be classified under any of the above capital object heads. [Ref: Annexure-I, Sl. 54]

16. Subscriptions made by the Government of a capital nature are booked under Object Head
(a) 13 Office Expenses
(b) 54 Investment
(c) 32 Contribution
(d) 57 Subscription
Ans. (d) 57 Subscription — Explanation: Object Head 57 Subscription includes subscriptions made by the Government of capital nature. [Ref: Annexure-I, Sl. 53]

17. Loans and advances given by the Government are booked under Object Head
(a) 54 Investment
(b) 55 Loans and Advances
(c) 56 Repayment of borrowings
(d) 33 Subsidies
Ans. (b) 55 Loans and Advances — Explanation: Object Head 55 Loans and Advances includes loans and advances given by the Government. [Ref: Annexure-I, Sl. 51]

18. Match the codes: 11, 12, 13 correspond respectively to
(a) Foreign Travel Expenses, Domestic Travel Expenses, Rent
(b) Office Expenses, Domestic Travel Expenses, Foreign Travel Expenses
(c) Domestic Travel Expenses, Office Expenses, Royalty
(d) Domestic Travel Expenses, Foreign Travel Expenses, Office Expenses
Ans. (d) Domestic Travel Expenses, Foreign Travel Expenses, Office Expenses — Explanation: Annexure-I lists 11 Domestic Travel Expenses, 12 Foreign Travel Expenses and 13 Office Expenses. [Ref: Annexure-I, Sl. 9–11]

19. The Object Head codes 69 and 70 relate to
(a) Depreciation and Reserves
(b) Suspense and Reserves
(c) Deduct Receipts and Deduct Recoveries
(d) Investment and Loans
Ans. (c) Deduct Receipts and Deduct Recoveries — Explanation: 69 is Deduct Receipts and 70 is Deduct Recoveries, both under Object Class VIII – Accounting Adjustments. [Ref: Annexure-I, Sl. 60–61]

20. A printer costing Rs. 45,000 purchased for an office would ordinarily be booked as revenue expenditure under
(a) 19 Digital Equipment
(b) 74 Furniture & Fixtures
(c) 71 ICT Equipment
(d) 52 Machinery and Equipment
Ans. (a) 19 Digital Equipment — Explanation: Hardware below the threshold of one lakh rupees is revenue expenditure under Object Head 19 Digital Equipment. ICT equipment above the threshold goes to Object Head 71. [Ref: Annexure-I, Sl. 16 and 40]

21. A photocopier costing Rs. 2.5 lakh would be booked under which capital Object Head?
(a) 13 Office Expenses
(b) 19 Digital Equipment
(c) 29 Repair and Maintenance
(d) 52 Machinery and Equipment
Ans. (d) 52 Machinery and Equipment — Explanation: Office equipment exceeding the threshold is classified as capital under 'Machinery and Equipment' (Object Head 52), as stated in the description of Object Head 13. [Ref: Annexure-I, Sl. 11 and 39]

22. Which of the following is booked under 29 Repair and Maintenance and not under 27 Minor Civil and Electric Works?
(a) ROM of diesel genset maintained by CPWD
(b) Minor electrical repairs of an office building
(c) Maintenance contract for office photocopiers
(d) Minor repairs of residential buildings maintained by CPWD
Ans. (c) Maintenance contract for office photocopiers — Explanation: Maintenance contracts for equipment fall under 29 Repair and Maintenance. Minor civil and electrical repairs of buildings and ROM of CPWD-maintained gensets fall under 27. [Ref: Annexure-I, Sl. 22 and 24]

23. Which Object Head covers "Travel expenses on official tours and transfers of Government employees within India"?
(a) 13
(b) 12
(c) 08
(d) 11
Ans. (d) 11 — Explanation: Object Head 11 Domestic Travel Expenses covers official tours and transfers within India. [Ref: Annexure-I, Sl. 9]

24. Accounting Adjustment heads such as Suspense, Deduct Receipts and Deduct Recoveries are shown in the NS/NIS matrix (Annexure B to the OM of 23.02.2024) as
(a) Requiring prior approval of Parliament
(b) Not Applicable
(c) Exempted
(d) All cases to be decided on merits
Ans. (b) Not Applicable — Explanation: In the Object Head-wise Matrix, 43 Suspense, 69 Deduct Receipts and 70 Deduct Recoveries are marked "Not Applicable – Accounting Adjustments head". [Ref: Appendix I, Annexure B]

25. The Object Head list in Annexure-I is appended with reference to which rule of DFPR 2024?
(a) Rule 12
(b) Rule 10
(c) Rule 3
(d) Rule 8
Ans. (d) Rule 8 — Explanation: Annexure-I bears the note "(See Rule 8)", as Rule 8 deals with primary units of appropriation. [Ref: Annexure-I; Rule 8(3)]

What next? Continue with DFPR 2024 MCQs – Set 27. All sets are listed under the label DFPR 2024.

GFR 2017 MCQ Set 6: Expenditure Estimates and Demands for Grants (25 Questions with Answers)

2026-10-26T15:00:00.000+05:30

This is Set 6 of 48 in the smartvidya question bank on the General Financial Rules (GFR) 2017, updated up to 31.01.2026. Part II: Budget formulation and implementation. This set covers Rules 50 to 56: expenditure estimates, Demands for Grants, Outcome Budget and Vote on Account.

Set 6: Expenditure Estimates and Demands for Grants

1. Expenditure estimates must show separately sums charged on the Consolidated Fund under
(a) Article 112(3) and sums requiring a vote of the Lok Sabha under Article 113(2)
(b) Article 266(1) and Article 267(1)
(c) Article 150 and Article 151
(d) Article 114(3) and Article 115(1)
Ans. (a) Article 112(3) and sums requiring a vote of the Lok Sabha under Article 113(2) — Explanation: Rule 50(1) requires charged and voted expenditure to be shown separately. [Ref: Rule 50(1)]

2. Expenditure estimates must also distinguish
(a) domestic from foreign vendors
(b) Central from State expenditure
(c) salaried from non-salaried staff
(d) revenue account from capital account
Ans. (d) revenue account from capital account — Explanation: Rule 50(2) requires separate provisions for revenue and capital account, including loans and repayments. [Ref: Rule 50(2)]

3. Detailed estimates of expenditure are prepared up to the final unit of appropriation, which is the
(a) Object Head
(b) Minor Head
(c) Sub-Major Head
(d) Major Head
Ans. (a) Object Head — Explanation: Rule 50(3) requires estimates up to the Object Head under the prescribed Major and Minor Heads. [Ref: Rule 50(3)]

4. Revised and Budget Estimates, after scrutiny by the Financial Adviser, are approved by
(a) the Minister of Finance
(b) the Secretary of the Administrative Ministry or Department
(c) the Head of Office
(d) the CAG
Ans. (b) the Secretary of the Administrative Ministry or Department — Explanation: Rule 50(5) requires approval by the Secretary before forwarding to the Budget Division. [Ref: Rule 50(5)]

5. Estimates of expenditure for which a vote of the Lok Sabha is required are presented in the form of
(a) Finance Accounts
(b) Demands for Grants
(c) Appropriation Accounts
(d) Outcome Budget
Ans. (b) Demands for Grants — Explanation: Rule 51(1) states that voted expenditure estimates are in the form of Demands for Grants. [Ref: Rule 51(1)]

6. Generally, how many Demands for Grants are presented for each Ministry or Department?
(a) One, though large Ministries may have more than one
(b) One for each object head
(c) Two, one for revenue and one for capital
(d) One for each scheme
Ans. (a) One, though large Ministries may have more than one — Explanation: Rule 51(2) provides for one Demand per Ministry, with more for large Ministries. [Ref: Rule 51(2)]

7. Detailed Demands for Grants are laid on the Table of the Lok Sabha for consideration by
(a) the Public Accounts Committee
(b) the Committee on Public Undertakings
(c) the Estimates Committee
(d) the Departmentally Related Standing Committees
Ans. (d) the Departmentally Related Standing Committees — Explanation: Rule 51(3) refers to the DRSCs. [Ref: Rule 51(3)]

8. The main Demands for Grants are presented to Parliament by
(a) the CAG
(b) the Cabinet Secretariat
(c) the Ministry of Finance, Budget Division, along with the Annual Financial Statement
(d) each Ministry separately
Ans. (c) the Ministry of Finance, Budget Division, along with the Annual Financial Statement — Explanation: Rule 51(3) distinguishes main Demands (Budget Division) from Detailed Demands (Ministries). [Ref: Rule 51(3)]

9. The form of the Annual Financial Statement and Demands for Grants is laid down by
(a) each Ministry
(b) the Lok Sabha Secretariat
(c) the CAG
(d) the Finance Ministry
Ans. (d) the Finance Ministry — Explanation: Rule 52(1) states no alteration of arrangement or classification can be made without the Finance Ministry's approval. [Ref: Rule 52(1)]

10. The authorised heads for expenditure in a year are those shown in
(a) the previous year's actuals
(b) the vendor contracts
(c) the Finance Accounts
(d) the Detailed Demands for Grants passed by Parliament
Ans. (d) the Detailed Demands for Grants passed by Parliament — Explanation: Rule 52(2) also bars changes without formal approval of the Finance Ministry. [Ref: Rule 52(2)]

11. Detailed instructions for preparation of the budget are available in
(a) Form GFR 1
(b) Appendix 1 only
(c) Appendices 2, 3 and 4 of GFR 2017
(d) Appendix 12
Ans. (c) Appendices 2, 3 and 4 of GFR 2017 — Explanation: The note under Rule 52 refers to Appendices 2, 3 and 4 of GFR 2017. [Ref: Note below Rule 52]

12. Pre-budget meetings to discuss requirements of funds are held by
(a) Secretary (Expenditure) with Secretaries or Financial Advisers of Ministries
(b) the Lok Sabha Speaker with Secretaries
(c) the CAG with Ministers
(d) NITI Aayog with State Governments
Ans. (a) Secretary (Expenditure) with Secretaries or Financial Advisers of Ministries — Explanation: Rule 53 describes scrutiny by the Budget Division and pre-budget meetings with Secretary (Expenditure). [Ref: Rule 53]

13. The Outcome Budget is prepared by the Department of Expenditure in consultation with
(a) the RBI
(b) the Lok Sabha Secretariat
(c) the CAG
(d) NITI Aayog and the concerned Ministries
Ans. (d) NITI Aayog and the concerned Ministries — Explanation: Rule 54 links outlays with outputs and outcomes for each scheme. [Ref: Rule 54]

14. In the Outcome Budget, outputs and deliverables must be given
(a) only for capital schemes
(b) in measurable or quantitative terms
(c) only after audit
(d) in general descriptive terms only
Ans. (b) in measurable or quantitative terms — Explanation: Rule 54 mandates measurable outputs, based on projections in the Medium-Term Expenditure Framework. [Ref: Rule 54]

15. Performance against specified outcomes in the Outcome Budget forms the basis of
(a) transferring officers
(b) fixing user charges
(c) deciding continuation of the scheme and the quantum of budget allocation
(d) deciding dividend payments
Ans. (c) deciding continuation of the scheme and the quantum of budget allocation — Explanation: Rule 54 links outcomes to scheme continuation and allocation. [Ref: Rule 54]

16. A "Vote on Account" is obtained under
(a) Article 267 of the Constitution
(b) Article 150 of the Constitution
(c) Article 116 of the Constitution
(d) Article 112 of the Constitution
Ans. (c) Article 116 of the Constitution — Explanation: Rule 55 refers to Article 116 for obtaining a Vote on Account. [Ref: Rule 55]

17. A Vote on Account is needed when
(a) the CAG objects to expenditure
(b) a new scheme is approved mid-year
(c) the Appropriation Bill is likely to be passed after the start of the financial year
(d) there are savings in a grant
Ans. (c) the Appropriation Bill is likely to be passed after the start of the financial year — Explanation: Rule 55 provides for a Vote on Account pending completion of the procedure under Article 113 of the Constitution. [Ref: Rule 55]

18. Funds made available under a Vote on Account
(a) can be used only for salaries
(b) are not to be utilised for expenditure on a New Service
(c) can be used for any purpose
(d) are available for the whole year
Ans. (b) are not to be utilised for expenditure on a New Service — Explanation: Rule 55 specifically bars use of Vote on Account funds for a New Service. [Ref: Rule 55]

19. After the Appropriation Bill is passed, the grants are communicated to Ministries by
(a) the CAG
(b) the Ministry of Finance
(c) the Lok Sabha Secretariat
(d) the Reserve Bank
Ans. (b) the Ministry of Finance — Explanation: Rule 56 also requires Ministries to distribute funds to subordinate formations and inform PAOs. [Ref: Rule 56]

20. Pay and Accounts Officers exercise check against
(a) the allocation made to each subordinate authority
(b) the vendor's turnover
(c) the Outcome Budget targets
(d) the dividend policy
Ans. (a) the allocation made to each subordinate authority — Explanation: Rule 56 requires distribution of grants to be communicated to PAOs, who check payments against allocations. [Ref: Rule 56]

21. The major head wise provisions in the Detailed Demands for Grants must match
(a) the actuals of the previous year
(b) the Finance Accounts
(c) the State Budgets
(d) the provisions in the Demands for Grants presented by the Budget Division
Ans. (d) the provisions in the Demands for Grants presented by the Budget Division — Explanation: Rule 52(3) requires this match because appropriations are sought on the basis of Demands for Grants. [Ref: Rule 52(3)]

22. Each Demand for Grants normally includes provisions for
(a) only capital works
(b) only salaries
(c) revenue expenditure, capital expenditure, grants to States and UTs, and loans and advances relating to the service
(d) only grants to States
Ans. (c) revenue expenditure, capital expenditure, grants to States and UTs, and loans and advances relating to the service — Explanation: Rule 51(2) describes the normal content of a Demand. [Ref: Rule 51(2)]

23. Estimates of expenditure must include suitable provision for
(a) liabilities of previous years to be discharged during the year
(b) contingencies of State Governments
(c) liabilities of private contractors
(d) liabilities of the next five years
Ans. (a) liabilities of previous years to be discharged during the year — Explanation: Rule 50(3) requires provision for past liabilities payable during the year. [Ref: Rule 50(3)]

24. Allocations for each scheme or project in the Outcome Budget shall be against
(a) a firm set of deliverables to be adhered to
(b) last year's expenditure only
(c) estimates of the vendor
(d) no defined targets
Ans. (a) a firm set of deliverables to be adhered to — Explanation: Rule 54 requires allocations against firm deliverables. [Ref: Rule 54]

25. The estimates of scheme-related expenditure are processed in consultation with
(a) the Reserve Bank
(b) the Budget Division, Ministry of Finance
(c) the State Finance Departments
(d) the CAG
Ans. (b) the Budget Division, Ministry of Finance — Explanation: Rule 50(4) prescribes consultation with the Budget Division. [Ref: Rule 50(4)]

Next: Set 7. See all sets under the label GFR 2017. For exam preparation, attempt the full set before checking answers and revise the topic of every question you miss.

CCS (CCA) Rules MCQ Set 5: Suspension I: Grounds and Authorities (25 Questions with Answers)

2026-10-26T12:00:00.000+05:30

This is Set 5 of 40 in the smartvidya question bank on the Central Civil Services (Classification, Control and Appeal) Rules, 1965, with the latest amendments and DoPT instructions. Part II: Suspension. This set covers Rule 10(1) grounds (a), (aa), (b); who may suspend; proviso on reporting; January 2026 amendment.

Set 5: Suspension I: Grounds and Authorities

1. Which of the following is NOT a ground for suspension under Rule 10(1)?
(a) A case against him for a criminal offence is under investigation, inquiry or trial
(b) A disciplinary proceeding against him is contemplated or pending
(c) He is engaged in activities prejudicial to the interest of the security of the State
(d) The Government servant has applied for voluntary retirement
Ans. (d) The Government servant has applied for voluntary retirement — Explanation: Rule 10(1) lists only the grounds in Rule 10(1)(a), 10(1)(aa) and 10(1)(b); an application for voluntary retirement is not a ground. [Ref: Rule 10(1)]

2. Rule 10(1)(aa) permits suspension of a Government servant on which ground?
(a) He has been declared surplus
(b) He has been convicted of a criminal offence
(c) He has remained absent without leave for more than a year
(d) He has engaged himself in activities prejudicial to the interest of the security of the State
Ans. (d) He has engaged himself in activities prejudicial to the interest of the security of the State — Explanation: Clause (aa) covers activities prejudicial to the security of the State; conviction leads to deemed suspension under Rule 10(2). [Ref: Rule 10(1)(aa)]

3. Rule 10(1) authorises all of the following to place a Government servant under suspension EXCEPT:
(a) Any authority to which the appointing authority is subordinate
(b) The disciplinary authority
(c) The appointing authority
(d) Any officer senior to the Government servant in the same office
Ans. (d) Any officer senior to the Government servant in the same office — Explanation: Rule 10(1) names the appointing authority, any authority to which it is subordinate, the disciplinary authority, and any authority empowered by the President; mere seniority confers no power. [Ref: Rule 10(1)]

4. Besides the appointing authority, a superior authority and the disciplinary authority, who else may suspend under Rule 10(1)?
(a) Any officer of the Vigilance Wing
(b) The investigating police officer
(c) The Central Vigilance Commission
(d) Any other authority empowered in that behalf by the President by general or special order
Ans. (d) Any other authority empowered in that behalf by the President by general or special order — Explanation: Rule 10(1) also allows suspension by any other authority empowered by the President by general or special order; the CVC and police have no such power. [Ref: Rule 10(1)]

5. When an authority lower than the appointing authority suspends a Government servant, what must it do under the proviso to Rule 10(1)?
(a) Refer the case to the President for a decision
(b) Forthwith report to the appointing authority the circumstances in which the order was made
(c) Obtain the prior approval of the UPSC
(d) Get the order confirmed by the Central Vigilance Commission within 30 days
Ans. (b) Forthwith report to the appointing authority the circumstances in which the order was made — Explanation: The proviso requires a lower authority that orders suspension to report forthwith to the appointing authority the circumstances in which the order was made, subject to the IA&AD-specific exceptions. [Ref: Rule 10(1), proviso]

6. What is the nature of suspension under Rule 10?
(a) It is a major penalty
(b) It becomes a penalty if it lasts more than 90 days
(c) It is not a penalty under Rule 11
(d) It is a minor penalty
Ans. (c) It is not a penalty under Rule 11 — Explanation: Suspension is an interim measure pending inquiry or trial; it does not appear in the list of penalties in Rule 11 of the Rules. [Ref: Rules 10 and 11]

7. Under Rule 10(1)(b), suspension may be ordered when a case against the Government servant for a criminal offence is at which stage?
(a) Only where the department itself lodged the FIR
(b) Only after conviction by the trial court
(c) Only after a charge-sheet is filed in court
(d) Under investigation, inquiry or trial
Ans. (d) Under investigation, inquiry or trial — Explanation: Rule 10(1)(b) applies at any stage of investigation, inquiry or trial, whoever initiated the case. [Ref: Rule 10(1)(b)]

8. A preliminary inquiry reveals serious misconduct, but the charge-sheet has not yet been drafted. Can the disciplinary authority place the employee under suspension?
(a) Yes, but only with the prior approval of the UPSC
(b) No, suspension is possible only after the charge-sheet is served
(c) No, suspension is possible only in criminal cases
(d) Yes, under Rule 10(1)(a), since a disciplinary proceeding is contemplated
Ans. (d) Yes, under Rule 10(1)(a), since a disciplinary proceeding is contemplated — Explanation: Rule 10(1)(a) covers a proceeding that is "contemplated" as well as one that is pending, so a charge-sheet need not have been issued. [Ref: Rule 10(1)(a)]

9. According to DoPT guidelines, suspension may be considered where continuance in office is likely to do which of the following?
(a) Increase the workload of other staff
(b) Delay the employee's promotion
(c) Reduce the employee's chances of transfer
(d) Prejudice the investigation, trial or inquiry, for example by tampering with witnesses or documents
Ans. (d) Prejudice the investigation, trial or inquiry, for example by tampering with witnesses or documents — Explanation: DoPT instructions list cases where continuance would prejudice the investigation or inquiry, subvert discipline or be against the wider public interest. [Ref: Rule 10; DoPT OM dated 2.1.2014]

10. Which of the following is normally NOT a type of misconduct for which suspension is considered under DoPT guidelines?
(a) A single instance of late attendance
(b) Corruption or embezzlement
(c) An offence involving moral turpitude
(d) Serious negligence causing considerable loss to Government
Ans. (a) A single instance of late attendance — Explanation: Suspension is to be used sparingly for grave matters such as corruption, moral turpitude or serious negligence, not for trivial lapses. [Ref: Rule 10; DoPT OM dated 2.1.2014]

11. Can an order of suspension under Rule 10(1) be given retrospective effect?
(a) Yes, from the date the complaint was received
(b) No; it operates prospectively and cannot be made retrospective
(c) Yes, from the date of the alleged misconduct
(d) Yes, from the date of the preliminary inquiry report
Ans. (b) No; it operates prospectively and cannot be made retrospective — Explanation: Government instructions make clear that an order of suspension cannot be made with retrospective effect; only deemed suspension operates from an earlier date by force of the Rule. [Ref: Rule 10; Government of India decisions]

12. A Government servant is under trial for assaulting a neighbour, an offence unconnected with his official duties. Can he be suspended under Rule 10(1)(b)?
(a) No; suspension is possible only for offences under the Prevention of Corruption Act
(b) No; the offence must relate to official duties
(c) Yes; the clause covers a case in respect of any criminal offence
(d) Yes, but only after conviction
Ans. (c) Yes; the clause covers a case in respect of any criminal offence — Explanation: Rule 10(1)(b) speaks of a case in respect of any criminal offence; whether to suspend is a matter of judgement in each case. [Ref: Rule 10(1)(b)]

13. The amendment notified on 12 January 2026 (G.S.R. 21(E)) substituted the proviso to Rule 10(1) in relation to which categories?
(a) Members of the Indian Audit and Accounts Service, Assistant Accountants General and General Central Service members in IA&AD
(b) Railway servants on deputation to Central Ministries
(c) Members of the All India Services on Central deputation
(d) Casual workers in Defence establishments
Ans. (a) Members of the Indian Audit and Accounts Service, Assistant Accountants General and General Central Service members in IA&AD — Explanation: The 2026 amendment concerns suspension of IA&AS members, Assistant Accountants General and GCS members in the Indian Audit and Accounts Department. [Ref: G.S.R. 21(E) dated 12.1.2026]

14. Intelligence reports indicate that a Government servant is passing classified information to a foreign agency, though no criminal case is yet registered. Under which provision may he be suspended?
(a) Rule 10(2)
(b) Rule 10(4)
(c) Rule 10(1)(aa)
(d) FR 56(j)
Ans. (c) Rule 10(1)(aa) — Explanation: Clause (aa) covers activities prejudicial to the security of the State and does not depend on a criminal case; FR 56(j) is premature retirement, not suspension. [Ref: Rule 10(1)(aa)]

15. Is suspension under Rule 10(1)(b) automatic upon registration of an FIR against a Government servant?
(a) Yes; it follows automatically from the FIR
(b) No; it is discretionary and depends on the facts of the case
(c) No; suspension is barred until the trial ends
(d) Yes, if the FIR is registered by the CBI
Ans. (b) No; it is discretionary and depends on the facts of the case — Explanation: Rule 10(1) uses "may"; only deemed suspension under Rule 10(2) is automatic, on custody or conviction. [Ref: Rule 10(1)(b)]

16. What is the essential purpose of placing a Government servant under suspension?
(a) To recover the Government's financial loss
(b) To punish him for the misconduct before the inquiry
(c) To keep him away from his post pending inquiry or trial without prejudging his guilt
(d) To deny him all payments until the case ends
Ans. (c) To keep him away from his post pending inquiry or trial without prejudging his guilt — Explanation: Suspension is a temporary withdrawal from duty to protect the inquiry and the public interest; it is not a punishment and subsistence allowance is paid. [Ref: Rule 10; DoPT OM dated 2.1.2014]

17. During suspension, what does the Government servant receive in place of pay?
(a) Subsistence allowance
(b) No payment of any kind
(c) Full pay and allowances
(d) Half pay leave salary credited to his leave account
Ans. (a) Subsistence allowance — Explanation: A suspended employee is paid subsistence allowance under FR 53 instead of pay; leave is not debited. [Ref: Rule 10; FR 53]

18. DoPT guidelines say suspension may be considered where a prima facie case justifies proceedings likely to end in which outcome?
(a) Censure only
(b) Conviction or dismissal, removal or compulsory retirement
(c) Withholding of one increment
(d) A recordable warning
Ans. (b) Conviction or dismissal, removal or compulsory retirement — Explanation: One of the listed situations is where a prima facie case exists justifying criminal or departmental proceedings likely to end in conviction or a major penalty of dismissal, removal or compulsory retirement. [Ref: Rule 10; DoPT guidelines on suspension]

19. A Group B officer whose appointing authority is the Chief Commissioner is suspended by the Commissioner, his disciplinary authority. What must the Commissioner do?
(a) Report forthwith to the Chief Commissioner the circumstances in which the suspension was ordered
(b) Refer the case to the UPSC for advice
(c) Obtain the Chief Commissioner's approval within 90 days, failing which the order lapses
(d) Nothing further, as the disciplinary authority is fully competent
Ans. (a) Report forthwith to the Chief Commissioner the circumstances in which the suspension was ordered — Explanation: Under the proviso to Rule 10(1), an authority lower than the appointing authority must report forthwith the circumstances of the suspension to the appointing authority. [Ref: Rule 10(1), proviso]

20. A Government servant retired on superannuation last month, and a vigilance case has now been registered against him. Can he be placed under suspension under Rule 10?
(a) Yes, under Rule 10(1)(b)
(b) No; suspension applies only to a serving Government servant
(c) Yes, with retrospective effect from before retirement
(d) Yes, but only by the President
Ans. (b) No; suspension applies only to a serving Government servant — Explanation: Suspension withdraws a serving employee from duty; after retirement any action lies under the pension rules, not under the suspension rule. [Ref: Rule 10; CCS (Pension) Rules, 2021]

21. The CBI has registered a case under the Prevention of Corruption Act against a Government servant and investigation is in progress. Which clause permits his suspension?
(a) Rule 10(1)(aa)
(b) Rule 10(5)(c)
(c) Rule 10(1)(b)
(d) Rule 10(3)
Ans. (c) Rule 10(1)(b) — Explanation: A criminal case under investigation, inquiry or trial falls under Rule 10(1)(b), regardless of the investigating agency. [Ref: Rule 10(1)(b)]

22. Can a Government servant be suspended after a charge-sheet has been issued and the inquiry is in progress?
(a) Yes; Rule 10(1)(a) covers a pending disciplinary proceeding as well
(b) No; once the inquiry begins suspension is barred
(c) Yes, but only if the inquiry officer recommends it
(d) No; suspension must precede the charge-sheet
Ans. (a) Yes; Rule 10(1)(a) covers a pending disciplinary proceeding as well — Explanation: Rule 10(1)(a) applies where proceedings are contemplated or pending, so suspension may be ordered at a later stage if needed. [Ref: Rule 10(1)(a)]

23. Consider the statements: (i) Suspension under Rule 10(1) is a penalty listed in Rule 11 of the Rules. (ii) The disciplinary authority may suspend a Government servant when a disciplinary proceeding against him is contemplated. Which is/are correct?
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) Both (i) and (ii)
(d) Neither (i) nor (ii)
Ans. (b) Only (ii) — Explanation: Suspension is not among the Rule 11 penalties; Rule 10(1)(a) allows the disciplinary authority to suspend when proceedings are contemplated. [Ref: Rules 10(1)(a) and 11]

24. Assertion (A): A Government servant may be suspended even before a charge-sheet is issued to him. Reason (R): Rule 10(1)(a) permits suspension where a disciplinary proceeding against him is contemplated.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A — Explanation: The word "contemplated" in Rule 10(1)(a) is what allows suspension before the charge-sheet is issued. [Ref: Rule 10(1)(a)]

25. Consider the statements: (i) An authority lower than the appointing authority that orders suspension must report the circumstances forthwith to the appointing authority. (ii) Any authority to which the appointing authority is subordinate may order suspension under Rule 10(1). Which is/are correct?
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) Both (i) and (ii)
(d) Neither (i) nor (ii)
Ans. (c) Both (i) and (ii) — Explanation: The proviso to Rule 10(1) imposes the reporting duty, and the main rule includes any authority to which the appointing authority is subordinate. [Ref: Rule 10(1) and proviso]

Next: Set 6. See all sets under the label CCS CCA Rules. For exam preparation, attempt the full set before checking answers and revise the topic of every question you miss.

POSH Act MCQ Set 5: Section 4: Constitution of the Internal Committee (25 Questions with Answers)

2026-10-26T09:00:00.000+05:30

This is Set 5 of 40 in the smartvidya question bank on the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013 and Rules, with the latest judgments. Part II: Internal and Local Committees. This set covers Duty to constitute, Presiding Officer, members, external member and women's representation.

Try each question first, then tap Show answer to see the correct option, a short explanation and the section or rule reference. The questions are useful for departmental and promotion examinations, for Internal Committee members, HR and administrative officers, and law students.

Set 5: Section 4: Constitution of the Internal Committee

1. The duty to constitute an Internal Complaints Committee is laid down in
(a) Section 4
(b) Section 19
(c) Section 9
(d) Section 6
Ans. (a) Section 4 — Explanation: Section 4(1) requires every employer to constitute an Internal Complaints Committee by written order. [Ref: Section 4(1)]

2. An Internal Committee must be constituted by the employer by
(a) an oral announcement
(b) a resolution of the employees
(c) a notice in a newspaper
(d) an order in writing
Ans. (d) an order in writing — Explanation: Section 4(1) requires an order in writing. [Ref: Section 4(1)]

3. Where the offices or administrative units of a workplace are located at different places, the Internal Committee shall be constituted
(a) only at the largest office
(b) at the discretion of the Local Committee
(c) at all administrative units or offices
(d) only at the head office
Ans. (c) at all administrative units or offices — Explanation: The proviso to Section 4(1) requires a committee at all administrative units or offices. [Ref: Section 4(1), proviso]

4. Read with Section 6(1), an Internal Committee is in practice mandatory for a workplace with
(a) one hundred or more workers
(b) fifty or more workers
(c) ten or more workers
(d) twenty or more workers
Ans. (c) ten or more workers — Explanation: Read with Section 6(1), the Local Committee handles workplaces where no Internal Committee is constituted because there are fewer than ten workers. [Ref: Sections 4 and 6(1)]

5. The Presiding Officer of the Internal Committee shall be
(a) the head of the organisation
(b) a retired judge
(c) a member of an NGO
(d) a woman employed at a senior level at the workplace from among the employees
Ans. (d) a woman employed at a senior level at the workplace from among the employees — Explanation: Section 4(2)(a) requires a woman employed at a senior level to be the Presiding Officer. [Ref: Section 4(2)(a)]

6. If a senior-level woman employee is not available at a workplace, the Presiding Officer shall be nominated from
(a) other offices or administrative units of the same employer
(b) any NGO
(c) the Local Committee
(d) the District Officer's office
Ans. (a) other offices or administrative units of the same employer — Explanation: The provisos to Section 4(2)(a) allow nomination from other offices, units, departments or organisations of the employer. [Ref: Section 4(2)(a), provisos]

7. Besides the Presiding Officer, the Internal Committee shall have from among the employees
(a) not more than one member
(b) not less than two members
(c) not less than five members
(d) exactly one member
Ans. (b) not less than two members — Explanation: Section 4(2)(b) requires not less than two members from among employees. [Ref: Section 4(2)(b)]

8. Employee members of the Internal Committee should preferably be
(a) members of a trade union
(b) from the finance department
(c) committed to the cause of women, or have experience in social work or legal knowledge
(d) the senior-most officers
Ans. (c) committed to the cause of women, or have experience in social work or legal knowledge — Explanation: Section 4(2)(b) states these preferences. [Ref: Section 4(2)(b)]

9. The external member of the Internal Committee is drawn from
(a) non-governmental organisations or associations committed to the cause of women, or a person familiar with issues relating to sexual harassment
(b) the Labour Department
(c) the employer's legal firm
(d) the police
Ans. (a) non-governmental organisations or associations committed to the cause of women, or a person familiar with issues relating to sexual harassment — Explanation: Section 4(2)(c) requires one member from such NGOs or associations, or a person familiar with sexual harassment issues. [Ref: Section 4(2)(c)]

10. The number of external members required on an Internal Committee is
(a) two
(b) one
(c) none
(d) three
Ans. (b) one — Explanation: Section 4(2)(c) requires one member from among NGOs or associations or a person familiar with such issues. [Ref: Section 4(2)(c)]

11. Of the total members nominated to the Internal Committee, women must be
(a) all
(b) at least one-third
(c) at least one-half
(d) at least two-thirds
Ans. (c) at least one-half — Explanation: The proviso to Section 4(2) requires at least one-half of the members to be women. [Ref: Section 4(2), proviso]

12. The minimum number of members, including the Presiding Officer, an Internal Committee must have is
(a) four
(b) two
(c) three
(d) five
Ans. (a) four — Explanation: A Presiding Officer, at least two employee members and one external member make at least four. [Ref: Section 4(2)]

13. The Internal Committee is also known in practice as the
(a) Grievance Appellate Committee
(b) Local Complaints Committee
(c) Standing Disciplinary Committee
(d) Internal Complaints Committee
Ans. (d) Internal Complaints Committee — Explanation: Section 4 uses "Internal Complaints Committee"; the Rules and the definition in Section 2(h) also use "Internal Committee". [Ref: Sections 2(h) and 4]

14. Which of these would make an Internal Committee improperly constituted?
(a) Having a member with legal knowledge
(b) Having half of its members as women
(c) Having a woman Presiding Officer
(d) Having no external member from an NGO or a person familiar with sexual harassment issues
Ans. (d) Having no external member from an NGO or a person familiar with sexual harassment issues — Explanation: The external member is mandatory under Section 4(2)(c); courts have set aside inquiries by improperly constituted committees. [Ref: Section 4(2)(c)]

15. "A person familiar with issues relating to sexual harassment" is explained in
(a) Section 15
(b) Rule 4 of the 2013 Rules
(c) Section 26
(d) Rule 9 of the 2013 Rules
Ans. (b) Rule 4 of the 2013 Rules — Explanation: Rule 4 says such a person has expertise on these issues, such as a social worker with five years' experience or a person familiar with labour, service, civil or criminal law. [Ref: Rule 4]

16. A social worker qualifies as a person familiar with issues relating to sexual harassment under Rule 4 if she has at least
(a) two years' experience
(b) a law degree
(c) five years' experience in social work
(d) ten years' experience
Ans. (c) five years' experience in social work — Explanation: Rule 4 refers to a social worker with at least five years' experience in the field of social work. [Ref: Rule 4]

17. The employer of a company with branches in Mumbai, Pune and Chennai, each with more than ten employees, should constitute
(a) no committee if the head office has one
(b) an Internal Committee at each office or administrative unit
(c) a Local Committee in each city
(d) one committee at the registered office only
Ans. (b) an Internal Committee at each office or administrative unit — Explanation: The proviso to Section 4(1) requires committees at all offices or units. [Ref: Section 4(1), proviso]

18. The Presiding Officer and members of the Internal Committee are nominated by
(a) the employer
(b) the employees through election
(c) the Local Committee
(d) the District Officer
Ans. (a) the employer — Explanation: Section 4(2) provides for nomination by the employer. [Ref: Section 4(2)]

19. The employer himself or the head of the organisation as a member of the Internal Committee is
(a) required as the external member
(b) not required by the Act, and is usually avoided because complaints may concern senior management
(c) compulsory
(d) compulsory as Presiding Officer
Ans. (b) not required by the Act, and is usually avoided because complaints may concern senior management — Explanation: The Act lays down the composition; complaints against the employer go to the Local Committee under Section 6(1). [Ref: Sections 4(2) and 6(1)]

20. In Aureliano Fernandes (2023), the Supreme Court directed authorities to verify that committees
(a) are abolished in Government departments
(b) have only male members
(c) are replaced by police cells
(d) are constituted and their composition is strictly as stipulated in the Act
Ans. (d) are constituted and their composition is strictly as stipulated in the Act — Explanation: The Court directed verification of constitution and composition of ICs, LCs and ICCs across Government bodies. [Ref: Aureliano Fernandes v. State of Goa, 2023]

21. The Internal Committee is the forum for complaints against
(a) the employer himself
(b) domestic workers' employers
(c) only outsiders
(d) a respondent at the workplace, other than complaints against the employer himself
Ans. (d) a respondent at the workplace, other than complaints against the employer himself — Explanation: Complaints against the employer go to the Local Committee under Section 6(1). [Ref: Sections 4 and 6(1)]

22. A company with 200 employees has an Internal Committee of five men and one woman. This is
(a) valid if the woman is Presiding Officer
(b) valid for the private sector
(c) valid, as numbers are sufficient
(d) invalid, as at least one-half of the members must be women
Ans. (d) invalid, as at least one-half of the members must be women — Explanation: The proviso to Section 4(2) requires at least half the members to be women. [Ref: Section 4(2), proviso]

23. Fees or allowances for the external member of the Internal Committee are paid by
(a) the complainant
(b) the State Government
(c) the employer
(d) the District Officer
Ans. (c) the employer — Explanation: Section 4(4) read with Rule 3 says the employer pays the fees or allowances. [Ref: Section 4(4); Rule 3]

24. Under Rule 3, the external NGO member of the Internal Committee is entitled to
(a) ₹200 per day for holding proceedings, plus travel reimbursement
(b) ₹250 per day
(c) ₹1,000 per sitting
(d) ₹500 per day
Ans. (a) ₹200 per day for holding proceedings, plus travel reimbursement — Explanation: Rule 3 fixes ₹200 per day plus reimbursement of travel within set limits. [Ref: Rule 3]

25. The Internal Committee is constituted by the
(a) District Officer
(b) employer
(c) National Commission for Women
(d) State Government
Ans. (b) employer — Explanation: Section 4(1) places the duty on every employer. [Ref: Section 4(1)]

Next: Set 6. See all sets under the label POSH Act. For exam preparation, attempt the full set before checking answers and revise the topic of every question you miss.

IT Act MCQ Set 5: Chapter III: Electronic Governance (25 Questions with Answers)

2026-10-26T06:00:00.000+05:30

This is Set 5 of 40 in the smartvidya question bank on the Information Technology Act, 2000, with the latest amendments and rules. Part II: Signatures, e-governance and electronic records. This set covers Sections 4 to 10A: legal recognition of electronic records and signatures, use in Government, service providers, retention, audit, Electronic Gazette and electronic contracts.

Try each question first, then tap Show answer to see the correct option, a short explanation and the section or rule reference. The questions are useful for departmental and promotion examinations, for law, IT and cyber security students, and for officers who deal with cyber cases.

Set 5: Chapter III: Electronic Governance

1. Section 4 provides that where any law requires information to be in writing, the requirement is satisfied if the information is
(a) rendered or made available in electronic form and accessible for subsequent reference
(b) published in newspapers
(c) printed and signed
(d) notarised
Ans. (a) rendered or made available in electronic form and accessible for subsequent reference — Explanation: Section 4 gives legal recognition to electronic records. [Ref: Section 4]

2. Section 5 provides that where any law requires a document to be signed, the requirement is satisfied if
(a) it is sent by e-mail
(b) it is typed in capital letters
(c) it is stored on a pen drive
(d) it is authenticated by means of an electronic signature affixed as prescribed
Ans. (d) it is authenticated by means of an electronic signature affixed as prescribed — Explanation: Section 5 gives legal recognition to electronic signatures. [Ref: Section 5]

3. Section 6 deals with
(a) penalties
(b) offences
(c) intermediaries
(d) use of electronic records and electronic signatures in Government and its agencies
Ans. (d) use of electronic records and electronic signatures in Government and its agencies — Explanation: Filing, issue of licences and receipt of payments may be done electronically. [Ref: Section 6]

4. Section 6A, inserted in 2009, allows the appropriate Government to authorise
(a) banks to issue currency
(b) police to arrest
(c) service providers to set up and maintain computerised facilities for delivery of services to the public and collect service charges
(d) CAs to grant licences
Ans. (c) service providers to set up and maintain computerised facilities for delivery of services to the public and collect service charges — Explanation: Common service centres and similar models rest on Section 6A. [Ref: Section 6A]

5. Section 7 provides that where a law requires documents to be retained for a period, the requirement is satisfied by retention in electronic form if
(a) the information remains accessible, the format accurately represents it, and details of origin, destination and dates are available
(b) the documents are deleted after scanning
(c) the documents are encrypted with a password
(d) the documents are printed weekly
Ans. (a) the information remains accessible, the format accurately represents it, and details of origin, destination and dates are available — Explanation: Section 7 lays down conditions for electronic retention. [Ref: Section 7]

6. Section 7A, inserted in 2009, provides that where law provides for audit of documents, it shall also apply to
(a) only bank documents
(b) only paper documents
(c) only foreign documents
(d) documents processed and maintained in electronic form
Ans. (d) documents processed and maintained in electronic form — Explanation: Section 7A extends audit to electronic records. [Ref: Section 7A]

7. Under Section 8, publication of rules or notifications in the Electronic Gazette is
(a) valid only if printed too
(b) invalid
(c) deemed to be publication in the Official Gazette
(d) valid only for State rules
Ans. (c) deemed to be publication in the Official Gazette — Explanation: The date of first publication in either form is the date of publication. [Ref: Section 8]

8. Section 9 provides that Sections 6, 7 and 8 do not confer a right upon any person to insist that a Government Ministry
(a) must accept paper documents
(b) must pay compensation
(c) should accept, issue, create, retain or preserve any document in electronic form
(d) must create a website
Ans. (c) should accept, issue, create, retain or preserve any document in electronic form — Explanation: Section 9 means citizens cannot compel electronic acceptance. [Ref: Section 9]

9. Section 10 empowers the Central Government to prescribe rules regarding
(a) intermediaries' safe harbour
(b) offences
(c) CERT-In
(d) the type of electronic signature, manner and format, and procedures to ensure integrity and security
Ans. (d) the type of electronic signature, manner and format, and procedures to ensure integrity and security — Explanation: Section 10 relates to electronic signatures. [Ref: Section 10]

10. Section 10A, inserted in 2009, provides that a contract formed where communication of proposals and acceptances is expressed in electronic form
(a) is void
(b) shall not be deemed unenforceable solely on the ground that electronic form or means was used
(c) requires stamp duty twice
(d) is voidable
Ans. (b) shall not be deemed unenforceable solely on the ground that electronic form or means was used — Explanation: Section 10A validates electronic contracts. [Ref: Section 10A]

11. Online click-wrap agreements derive their legal validity primarily from
(a) Section 66 of the IT Act
(b) Section 10A of the IT Act read with the Indian Contract Act
(c) Section 43A
(d) Section 79 of the IT Act
Ans. (b) Section 10A of the IT Act read with the Indian Contract Act — Explanation: Section 10A recognises electronic contracts. [Ref: Section 10A]

12. Can a citizen compel a Government office to accept an application only in electronic form under the IT Act?
(a) No, Section 9 confers no such right
(b) Yes, under Section 4
(c) Yes, under Section 79
(d) Yes, under Section 6
Ans. (a) No, Section 9 confers no such right — Explanation: Section 9 expressly bars such a claim. [Ref: Section 9]

13. Filing of forms and receipt of payments electronically by Government bodies is permitted under
(a) Section 43
(b) Section 72
(c) Section 81
(d) Section 6(1)
Ans. (d) Section 6(1) — Explanation: Section 6(1) lists filing, licences and payments. [Ref: Section 6(1)]

14. Under Section 6A, a service provider may
(a) collect, retain and appropriate service charges as prescribed
(b) collect taxes on its own
(c) arrest offenders
(d) issue certificates
Ans. (a) collect, retain and appropriate service charges as prescribed — Explanation: Section 6A(2) allows service charges. [Ref: Section 6A(2)]

15. Section 7 retention conditions require that information be retained in the format in which it was originally generated, sent or received, or in a format that
(a) is printed
(b) is encrypted
(c) is compressed
(d) can be demonstrated to represent accurately the information originally generated, sent or received
Ans. (d) can be demonstrated to represent accurately the information originally generated, sent or received — Explanation: Accuracy of representation is required. [Ref: Section 7(1)(b)]

16. Chapter III of the IT Act is titled
(a) Electronic Governance
(b) Regulation of Certifying Authorities
(c) Attribution, Acknowledgment and Despatch of Electronic Records
(d) Secure Electronic Records
Ans. (a) Electronic Governance — Explanation: Chapter III contains Sections 4 to 10A. [Ref: Chapter III]

17. Under Section 7, retention in electronic form does NOT apply to information
(a) of any kind
(b) in Government offices
(c) whose only purpose is to enable the record to be despatched or received
(d) in banks
Ans. (c) whose only purpose is to enable the record to be despatched or received — Explanation: The proviso to Section 7 excludes such transmission information. [Ref: Section 7, proviso]

18. Consider: (i) Section 4 recognises electronic records. (ii) Section 10A recognises electronic contracts. Which is correct?
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) Both (i) and (ii)
(d) Neither (i) nor (ii)
Ans. (c) Both (i) and (ii) — Explanation: Both statements are correct. [Ref: Sections 4 and 10A]

19. Which section deals with publication of rules in the Electronic Gazette?
(a) Section 6A
(b) Section 8
(c) Section 7
(d) Section 9
Ans. (b) Section 8 — Explanation: Section 8 deals with the Electronic Gazette. [Ref: Section 8]

20. E-filing of income tax returns is legally supported, among others, by
(a) Section 69
(b) Sections 4 and 6 of the IT Act
(c) Section 67
(d) Section 66F
Ans. (b) Sections 4 and 6 of the IT Act — Explanation: Electronic records and their use in Government are recognised. [Ref: Sections 4 and 6]

21. Assertion (A): An agreement concluded by exchange of e-mails can be enforceable. Reason (R): Section 10A bars denial of enforceability solely because electronic means were used.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A — Explanation: Section 10A supports the assertion. [Ref: Section 10A]

22. Section 6A service providers include
(a) only post offices
(b) only Government departments
(c) individuals, private agencies, private companies, partnership firms, sole proprietors or other bodies authorised by the appropriate Government
(d) only banks
Ans. (c) individuals, private agencies, private companies, partnership firms, sole proprietors or other bodies authorised by the appropriate Government — Explanation: The Explanation to Section 6A defines service provider broadly. [Ref: Section 6A, Explanation]

23. Which section provides that audit requirements extend to electronic records?
(a) Section 8
(b) Section 9
(c) Section 7
(d) Section 7A
Ans. (d) Section 7A — Explanation: Section 7A was inserted in 2009. [Ref: Section 7A]

24. Under Section 5, an electronic signature is valid for legal requirements of signature when
(a) affixed in any manner
(b) affixed in the manner prescribed by the Central Government
(c) affixed on paper
(d) affixed only by Government officers
Ans. (b) affixed in the manner prescribed by the Central Government — Explanation: Section 5 refers to the manner prescribed. [Ref: Section 5]

25. Section 4 requires that electronic information be
(a) printed
(b) accessible so as to be usable for subsequent reference
(c) deleted after use
(d) kept offline
Ans. (b) accessible so as to be usable for subsequent reference — Explanation: Accessibility for future reference is the condition. [Ref: Section 4(b)]

Next: Set 6. See all sets under the label IT Act. For exam preparation, attempt the full set before checking answers and revise the topic of every question you miss.

RTI Act MCQ Set 5: Section 4(1)(c) and (d), 4(2) to 4(4): Policy Facts, Reasons and Dissemination (25 Questions with Answers)

2026-10-25T21:00:00.000+05:30

This is Set 5 of 40 in the smartvidya question bank on the Right to Information Act, 2005 and RTI Rules, 2012, with the latest amendments. Part II: Right to information and obligations of public authorities. This set covers Publishing facts when formulating policies, reasons for decisions, proactive disclosure and modes of dissemination.

Try each question first, then tap Show answer to see the correct option, a short explanation and the section or rule reference. The questions are useful for departmental and promotion examinations, for PIOs and First Appellate Authorities, and for citizens who use the RTI Act.

Set 5: Section 4(1)(c) and (d), 4(2) to 4(4): Policy Facts, Reasons and Dissemination

1. Under Section 4(1)(c), while formulating important policies or announcing decisions affecting the public, a public authority shall
(a) publish only in the Gazette of the next year
(b) seek prior CIC approval
(c) publish all relevant facts
(d) keep the facts confidential till implementation
Ans. (c) publish all relevant facts — Explanation: Section 4(1)(c) requires publication of relevant facts while formulating policies or announcing decisions. [Ref: Section 4(1)(c)]

2. Section 4(1)(d) requires a public authority to
(a) provide reasons for its administrative or quasi-judicial decisions to affected persons
(b) publish all court cases
(c) publish salaries of private companies
(d) send reports to Parliament monthly
Ans. (a) provide reasons for its administrative or quasi-judicial decisions to affected persons — Explanation: Affected persons have a right to reasons for administrative or quasi-judicial decisions. [Ref: Section 4(1)(d)]

3. The aim of Section 4(2) is to
(a) restrict disclosure
(b) minimise the need for the public to use the Act to obtain information
(c) reduce record keeping
(d) increase RTI applications
Ans. (b) minimise the need for the public to use the Act to obtain information — Explanation: Suo motu disclosure at regular intervals reduces the need for RTI applications. [Ref: Section 4(2)]

4. Section 4(2) requires every public authority to take steps to provide information suo motu at regular intervals through
(a) various means of communications, including internet
(b) only through the CIC
(c) only the Official Gazette
(d) only in reply to Parliament questions
Ans. (a) various means of communications, including internet — Explanation: Section 4(2) refers to various means of communication, including the internet. [Ref: Section 4(2)]

5. Under Section 4(3), information shall be disseminated
(a) only in English
(b) only on request
(c) only to registered users
(d) widely and in such form and manner as is easily accessible to the public
Ans. (d) widely and in such form and manner as is easily accessible to the public — Explanation: Section 4(3) requires wide dissemination in an accessible form. [Ref: Section 4(3)]

6. Section 4(4) requires dissemination taking into consideration
(a) only electronic methods
(b) the PIO's convenience only
(c) cost effectiveness, local language and the most effective method of communication in the local area
(d) only English language
Ans. (c) cost effectiveness, local language and the most effective method of communication in the local area — Explanation: Section 4(4) also requires the information to be easily accessible, free or at cost of medium or print cost. [Ref: Section 4(4)]

7. Under Section 4(4), information disseminated should be accessible
(a) only after ₹100 fee
(b) only after an RTI application
(c) only at market price
(d) to the extent possible in electronic format with the PIO, free or at the cost of the medium or print cost price
Ans. (d) to the extent possible in electronic format with the PIO, free or at the cost of the medium or print cost price — Explanation: Section 4(4) provides for access free of cost or at the cost of medium or printing. [Ref: Section 4(4)]

8. The Explanation to Section 4 says "disseminated" means making information known or communicated to the public through
(a) only the Gazette
(b) notice boards, newspapers, public announcements, media broadcasts, the internet or inspection of offices
(c) only the internet
(d) only newspapers
Ans. (b) notice boards, newspapers, public announcements, media broadcasts, the internet or inspection of offices — Explanation: The Explanation lists several modes of dissemination. [Ref: Section 4, Explanation]

9. Which of these is NOT listed as a mode of dissemination in the Explanation to Section 4?
(a) Media broadcasts
(b) Inspection of offices
(c) Notice boards
(d) Private messages to selected individuals only
Ans. (d) Private messages to selected individuals only — Explanation: Dissemination means making information known to the public at large. [Ref: Section 4, Explanation]

10. The Department of Personnel and Training guidelines on suo motu disclosure under Section 4 are mainly meant to
(a) replace Section 4
(b) help public authorities implement proactive disclosure effectively
(c) fix penalties for citizens
(d) exempt public authorities from Section 4
Ans. (b) help public authorities implement proactive disclosure effectively — Explanation: DoPT guidelines give practical directions on what and how to disclose proactively. [Ref: Section 4; DoPT guidelines]

11. A citizen whose licence application was rejected is entitled under Section 4(1)(d) to
(a) nothing, as reasons are confidential
(b) the reasons for the decision
(c) a refund of all fees automatically
(d) an automatic review by the CIC
Ans. (b) the reasons for the decision — Explanation: Affected persons must be given reasons for administrative decisions. [Ref: Section 4(1)(d)]

12. Proactive disclosure under Section 4 is best described as
(a) a duty of the public authority independent of any RTI request
(b) applicable only to State bodies
(c) a duty arising only after an RTI request
(d) optional for Central public authorities
Ans. (a) a duty of the public authority independent of any RTI request — Explanation: Section 4 imposes obligations on every public authority on its own. [Ref: Section 4]

13. Which statement about Section 4(1)(c) is correct?
(a) It applies only after the policy is withdrawn
(b) It applies only to Cabinet decisions
(c) It applies only to private bodies
(d) It applies while formulating important policies or announcing decisions that affect the public
Ans. (d) It applies while formulating important policies or announcing decisions that affect the public — Explanation: Relevant facts must be published at the time of formulation or announcement. [Ref: Section 4(1)(c)]

14. Section 4(4) emphasises the use of
(a) only English
(b) only Hindi
(c) Sanskrit
(d) the local language
Ans. (d) the local language — Explanation: Local language and effective local communication are expressly mentioned. [Ref: Section 4(4)]

15. A public authority that fails to update its Section 4(1)(b) disclosures may be directed by the Commission under Section 19(8)(a)(vi) to
(a) provide it with an annual report in compliance with Section 4(1)(b)
(b) stop accepting RTI applications
(c) close the office
(d) pay compensation to the Government
Ans. (a) provide it with an annual report in compliance with Section 4(1)(b) — Explanation: Clause (vi) of Section 19(8)(a) deals with the annual report under Section 4(1)(b). [Ref: Section 19(8)(a)(vi)]

16. Under Section 4(1)(a), computerisation and networking of records is subject to
(a) approval of the CIC
(b) Parliament's resolution
(c) availability of resources
(d) consent of citizens
Ans. (c) availability of resources — Explanation: Section 4(1)(a) ties networking to availability of resources. [Ref: Section 4(1)(a)]

17. Section 4(1)(b) disclosures are often called
(a) appellate disclosures
(b) exempt disclosures
(c) third party disclosures
(d) suo motu or proactive disclosures
Ans. (d) suo motu or proactive disclosures — Explanation: They are published on the public authority's own motion without a request. [Ref: Section 4(1)(b)]

18. The objective of providing information through the internet under Section 4(2) is that
(a) the PIO can avoid replying to applications
(b) the public has minimum resort to the RTI Act to obtain information
(c) records can be destroyed
(d) fees are increased
Ans. (b) the public has minimum resort to the RTI Act to obtain information — Explanation: Section 4(2) aims to reduce dependence on RTI applications. [Ref: Section 4(2)]

19. Who has the primary responsibility to comply with Section 4 obligations?
(a) The Ministry of Law
(b) The CIC
(c) The citizen
(d) Every public authority
Ans. (d) Every public authority — Explanation: Section 4 obligations are placed on every public authority. [Ref: Section 4(1)]

20. Assertion (A): Section 4 requires proactive disclosure of information. Reason (R): Proactive disclosure reduces the need for citizens to file RTI applications.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A — Explanation: Section 4(2) states that the aim is to minimise resort to the Act for obtaining information. [Ref: Section 4(2)]

21. Information to be disseminated under Section 4 should be made available in a form that is
(a) easily accessible to the public
(b) accessible only to experts
(c) encrypted
(d) accessible only to Government servants
Ans. (a) easily accessible to the public — Explanation: Section 4(3) requires easy accessibility. [Ref: Section 4(3)]

22. The reasons for a quasi-judicial decision given under Section 4(1)(d) are meant for
(a) the media only
(b) the CIC only
(c) affected persons
(d) Parliament only
Ans. (c) affected persons — Explanation: Section 4(1)(d) requires reasons to be given to affected persons. [Ref: Section 4(1)(d)]

23. Section 4(1)(b) originally required publication within 120 days, which ran from
(a) the date of the first RTI request
(b) the enactment of the Act
(c) the beginning of the financial year
(d) the appointment of the CIC
Ans. (b) the enactment of the Act — Explanation: The 120 days ran from the enactment of the Act. [Ref: Section 4(1)(b)]

24. Consider: (i) Section 4 duties arise without any request. (ii) Section 4 requires updating disclosures every year. Which is correct?
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) Both (i) and (ii)
(d) Neither (i) nor (ii)
Ans. (c) Both (i) and (ii) — Explanation: Both statements reflect Section 4(1)(b) and 4(2). [Ref: Section 4]

25. Section 4(1)(b) disclosure of the names of PIOs helps citizens to
(a) avoid writing applications
(b) approach the CIC directly
(c) know to whom an RTI application should be addressed
(d) avoid paying fees
Ans. (c) know to whom an RTI application should be addressed — Explanation: Item (xvi) makes the PIO particulars public. [Ref: Section 4(1)(b)(xvi)]

Next: Set 6. See all sets under the label RTI Act. For exam preparation, attempt the full set before checking answers and revise the topic of every question you miss.

Teaching Aptitude MCQ Set 27: Cooperative Learning, Team Teaching, Role Play and Case Study (25 Questions with Answers)

2026-10-25T18:00:00.000+05:30

This is Set 27 of 60 in the smartvidya question bank on Teaching Aptitude (UGC NET Paper 1, Unit I). Part IV: Methods of teaching. This set covers Collaborative and experiential teaching methods.

Set 27: Cooperative Learning, Team Teaching, Role Play and Case Study

1. Which of the following is an essential element of cooperative learning according to Johnson and Johnson?
(a) Positive interdependence
(b) Silent individual work only
(c) Teacher lecturing throughout
(d) Competition among individuals
Ans. (a) Positive interdependence — Explanation: Members must depend on one another to succeed; the other elements include individual accountability and group processing. [Ref: Johnson and Johnson, cooperative learning]

2. Individual accountability in cooperative learning means
(a) the teacher does the group's work
(b) each member is responsible for his own learning and contribution
(c) only the group leader is assessed
(d) no one is assessed
Ans. (b) each member is responsible for his own learning and contribution — Explanation: Individual accountability prevents some members from relying on others' work. [Ref: Johnson and Johnson, cooperative learning]

3. The jigsaw technique of cooperative learning was developed by
(a) Robert Slavin
(b) Spencer Kagan
(c) Frank Lyman
(d) Elliot Aronson
Ans. (d) Elliot Aronson — Explanation: Aronson developed the jigsaw classroom in 1971 in Austin, Texas, to reduce conflict and promote cooperation. [Ref: Aronson, jigsaw classroom]

4. In the jigsaw method,
(a) all students study the same material alone
(b) each member becomes an expert on one part and teaches it to the home group
(c) students compete individually for prizes
(d) the teacher lectures and students listen
Ans. (b) each member becomes an expert on one part and teaches it to the home group — Explanation: Students meet in expert groups to master a part and then teach their home group. [Ref: Aronson, jigsaw classroom]

5. Student Teams–Achievement Divisions (STAD) is a cooperative learning method developed by
(a) Robert Slavin
(b) David Kolb
(c) Elliot Aronson
(d) Malcolm Knowles
Ans. (a) Robert Slavin — Explanation: In STAD, mixed-ability teams study together and earn recognition based on members' improvement. [Ref: Slavin, STAD]

6. Team teaching means
(a) students teaching teachers
(b) one teacher teaching many classes at once
(c) a teacher teaching a sports team
(d) two or more teachers jointly planning, teaching and evaluating a group of students
Ans. (d) two or more teachers jointly planning, teaching and evaluating a group of students — Explanation: Team teaching pools teachers' strengths and expertise for the benefit of learners. [Ref: Team teaching]

7. The main advantage of team teaching is that
(a) students benefit from the specialised knowledge of several teachers
(b) it requires only one teacher
(c) it allows teachers to avoid responsibility
(d) it reduces the need for planning
Ans. (a) students benefit from the specialised knowledge of several teachers — Explanation: Different teachers contribute their expertise and teaching styles. [Ref: Team teaching]

8. Role play as a teaching method helps students mainly to
(a) write faster
(b) memorise definitions
(c) understand situations and feelings by acting out roles
(d) avoid participation
Ans. (c) understand situations and feelings by acting out roles — Explanation: Acting out roles develops empathy, communication and understanding of social situations. [Ref: Role play]

9. The role-playing model of teaching was developed by
(a) Hilda Taba
(b) Fannie and George Shaftel
(c) Bruce Joyce and Marsha Weil
(d) Jerome Bruner
Ans. (b) Fannie and George Shaftel — Explanation: The Shaftels developed role playing as a model for exploring values and social behaviour. [Ref: Joyce and Weil, Models of Teaching]

10. Simulation as a teaching method involves
(a) representing a real situation in a controlled, simplified form for learning
(b) an annual examination
(c) giving a lecture on theory
(d) reading a textbook aloud
Ans. (a) representing a real situation in a controlled, simplified form for learning — Explanation: Simulations let learners practise decisions and skills safely, as with flight simulators or mock parliaments. [Ref: Simulation]

11. A mock parliament organised in a civics class is an example of
(a) lecture
(b) programmed learning
(c) simulation
(d) drill
Ans. (c) simulation — Explanation: Students experience parliamentary procedures in a simulated setting. [Ref: Simulation]

12. The case study method was first introduced in a systematic way in legal education at
(a) Harvard Law School
(b) Oxford University
(c) Sorbonne
(d) University of Calcutta
Ans. (a) Harvard Law School — Explanation: Christopher Columbus Langdell introduced the case method at Harvard Law School in the 1870s; it later spread to business schools. [Ref: Case method]

13. The case study method is most suitable for developing
(a) rote memory
(b) motor skills
(c) handwriting
(d) analytical and decision-making skills
Ans. (d) analytical and decision-making skills — Explanation: Learners analyse real or realistic situations and make decisions. [Ref: Case method]

14. Peer tutoring means
(a) teachers teaching other teachers only
(b) parents teaching at home
(c) self-study without help
(d) students teaching other students under the teacher's guidance
Ans. (d) students teaching other students under the teacher's guidance — Explanation: Both the tutor and the tutee benefit; tutors consolidate their understanding by explaining. [Ref: Peer tutoring]

15. Reciprocal teaching, involving predicting, questioning, clarifying and summarising, was developed by
(a) Joyce and Weil
(b) Dunn and Dunn
(c) Annemarie Palincsar and Ann Brown
(d) Johnson and Johnson
Ans. (c) Annemarie Palincsar and Ann Brown — Explanation: Palincsar and Brown (1984) designed reciprocal teaching to improve reading comprehension. [Ref: Palincsar and Brown (1984)]

16. Which of the following is a benefit of cooperative learning?
(a) Increased isolation of students
(b) More rote learning
(c) Improved social skills and academic achievement
(d) Reduced communication
Ans. (c) Improved social skills and academic achievement — Explanation: Research shows cooperative learning improves achievement, relationships and self-esteem. [Ref: Cooperative learning]

17. A problem in group work where some members do little because others will do the work is called
(a) positive interdependence
(b) scaffolding
(c) group processing
(d) social loafing
Ans. (d) social loafing — Explanation: Social loafing can be reduced through individual accountability and clear roles. [Ref: Social loafing]

18. Group processing in cooperative learning means
(a) the group reflects on how well it is working and how to improve
(b) the teacher processes all answers
(c) the group is dissolved
(d) students compete within the group
Ans. (a) the group reflects on how well it is working and how to improve — Explanation: Reflection on group functioning improves collaboration. [Ref: Johnson and Johnson, cooperative learning]

19. Collaborative learning differs from competitive learning in that collaborative learning
(a) prevents interaction
(b) encourages students to work together towards shared goals
(c) rewards only the top student
(d) encourages students to outdo one another
Ans. (b) encourages students to work together towards shared goals — Explanation: In collaboration, success of one supports the success of others. [Ref: Collaborative learning]

20. Dramatisation in teaching is especially useful for
(a) typing practice
(b) history and language learning
(c) calculating square roots
(d) chemical analysis
Ans. (b) history and language learning — Explanation: Enacting events or stories brings history and literature to life. [Ref: Dramatisation]

21. Which of these is a characteristic of the case study method?
(a) Learners only listen to the teacher
(b) Learners memorise a list of facts
(c) Learners study a detailed real-life situation and suggest solutions
(d) Learners perform physical exercises
Ans. (c) Learners study a detailed real-life situation and suggest solutions — Explanation: Case analysis connects theory with practice. [Ref: Case method]

22. Experiential learning through role play is followed most effectively by
(a) an immediate final examination
(b) a punishment
(c) a debriefing discussion
(d) silence
Ans. (c) a debriefing discussion — Explanation: Debriefing helps learners reflect on the experience and draw lessons. [Ref: Role play]

23. Mixed-ability grouping in cooperative learning is used mainly to
(a) reduce interaction
(b) let students of different abilities learn from each other
(c) rank students publicly
(d) separate weak students from strong ones
Ans. (b) let students of different abilities learn from each other — Explanation: Heterogeneous groups allow peer support and diverse perspectives. [Ref: Cooperative learning]

24. Inter-disciplinary team teaching would be most suitable for a topic like
(a) multiplication tables
(b) handwriting
(c) climate change, involving science, geography and economics
(d) spelling practice
Ans. (c) climate change, involving science, geography and economics — Explanation: Complex topics benefit from teachers of different subjects working together. [Ref: Team teaching]

25. In simulation games, learning occurs mainly through
(a) reading notes silently
(b) copying answers
(c) listening to lectures
(d) active participation and experiencing consequences of decisions
Ans. (d) active participation and experiencing consequences of decisions — Explanation: Learners see the results of their choices in a safe environment. [Ref: Simulation]

Next: Set 28. See all sets under the label Teaching Aptitude. For exam preparation, attempt the full set before checking answers and revise the topic of every question you miss.

GFR 2017 MCQ Set 5: Budget Formulation (25 Questions with Answers)

2026-10-25T15:00:00.000+05:30

This is Set 5 of 48 in the smartvidya question bank on the General Financial Rules (GFR) 2017, updated up to 31.01.2026. Part II: Budget formulation and implementation. This set covers Rules 42 to 49: financial year, presentation of budget and receipt estimates.

Set 5: Budget Formulation

1. Under Article 112(1) of the Constitution, the Annual Financial Statement is laid before Parliament by arrangement of
(a) the Finance Minister
(b) the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(c) the Comptroller and Auditor General
(d) the President directly
Ans. (a) the Finance Minister — Explanation: Rule 43(1) states the Finance Minister shall arrange to lay the Annual Financial Statement before both Houses before the commencement of the year. [Ref: Rule 43(1)]

2. The Annual Financial Statement is also known as
(a) the Appropriation Account
(b) the Outcome Budget
(c) the Finance Account
(d) the Budget
Ans. (d) the Budget — Explanation: Rule 43(1) describes the Annual Financial Statement as the Budget showing estimated receipts and expenditure. [Ref: Rule 43(1)]

3. The Railway Budget was merged with the General Budget with effect from
(a) 2018-19
(b) 2020-21
(c) 2017-18
(d) 2016-17
Ans. (c) 2017-18 — Explanation: Rule 43(2) states that from 2017-18 the Demands for Grants of Railways are part of the General Budget. [Ref: Rule 43(2)]

4. The constitutional provisions on preparation and submission of the budget to Parliament are contained in
(a) Articles 280 to 284
(b) Articles 266 to 267
(c) Articles 112 to 116
(d) Articles 148 to 151
Ans. (c) Articles 112 to 116 — Explanation: Rule 43(3) refers to Articles 112 to 116 of the Constitution. [Ref: Rule 43(3)]

5. Guidelines for preparation of budget estimates are issued by
(a) the CAG
(b) NITI Aayog
(c) the Controller General of Accounts
(d) the Budget Division of the Ministry of Finance
Ans. (d) the Budget Division of the Ministry of Finance — Explanation: Rule 43(4) requires all Ministries to comply in full with Budget Division guidelines. [Ref: Rule 43(4)]

6. Which of the following is NOT listed in Rule 44 as a content of the budget?
(a) Names of all contractors to be engaged during the year
(b) Estimates of all interest and debt servicing charges
(c) Estimates of all revenues expected during the year
(d) Estimates of all expenditure for each programme, scheme and project
Ans. (a) Names of all contractors to be engaged during the year — Explanation: Rule 44 lists revenues, expenditure, interest and debt servicing, and other prescribed information. [Ref: Rule 44]

7. For each Major Head in the receipt estimates, the estimating authority gives the break-up along with actuals of the past
(a) one year
(b) three years
(c) five years
(d) two years
Ans. (b) three years — Explanation: Rule 45 requires break-up of minor, sub-head and detailed estimates with actuals of the past three years. [Ref: Rule 45]

8. The accounting heads under which major tax and non-tax revenues are collected are prescribed by
(a) the State Governments
(b) the CAG alone
(c) the administrative Ministry in consultation with the Budget Division
(d) the Reserve Bank
Ans. (c) the administrative Ministry in consultation with the Budget Division — Explanation: Rule 45 prescribes this consultation for receipt heads. [Ref: Rule 45]

9. Non-tax revenues are collected through
(a) all Ministries/Departments, autonomous bodies and implementing agencies
(b) only the Reserve Bank
(c) only the Department of Expenditure
(d) only the Department of Revenue
Ans. (a) all Ministries/Departments, autonomous bodies and implementing agencies — Explanation: Rule 46 notes that while tax revenues are managed by Finance Ministry Departments, non-tax revenues are collected across Ministries and bodies. [Ref: Rule 46]

10. While fixing user charges, Ministries must ensure that they recover
(a) only the cost of materials
(b) the current cost of providing services with a reasonable return on capital investment
(c) nothing, as services must be free
(d) the cost of five years ago
Ans. (b) the current cost of providing services with a reasonable return on capital investment — Explanation: Rule 47(i) prescribes this cost-recovery principle. [Ref: Rule 47(i)]

11. The rates of user charges should be linked with appropriate price indices and reviewed at least every
(a) ten years
(b) year
(c) three years
(d) five years
Ans. (c) three years — Explanation: Rule 47(iii) requires review at least every three years. [Ref: Rule 47(iii)]

12. Wherever possible, user charges should be fixed through
(a) Rules or executive orders and not through a statute
(b) a Cabinet decision only
(c) an Act of Parliament
(d) an amendment to the Constitution
Ans. (a) Rules or executive orders and not through a statute — Explanation: Rule 47(iv) prefers Rules or executive orders to ease revision. [Ref: Rule 47(iv)]

13. Any deviation from cost-recovery norms in fixing user charges must be
(a) reported to the CAG
(b) approved by Parliament
(c) avoided in all cases
(d) specifically recorded with reasons justifying the lower charges
Ans. (d) specifically recorded with reasons justifying the lower charges — Explanation: Rule 47(ii) requires reasons to be recorded for such deviations. [Ref: Rule 47(ii)]

14. Each Ministry/Department may identify the user charges levied by it and
(a) report them only to the CAG
(b) send them to the Lok Sabha
(c) keep them confidential
(d) publish them on its website
Ans. (d) publish them on its website — Explanation: Rule 47 suggests identification and publication of user charges on the website. [Ref: Rule 47]

15. Dividends by Central Public Sector Enterprises must be paid
(a) through the Contingency Fund
(b) within an appropriate time frame immediately after the decision is taken in the AGM
(c) only when requested by the Ministry
(d) at the end of the next financial year
Ans. (b) within an appropriate time frame immediately after the decision is taken in the AGM — Explanation: Rule 48 requires timely payment, as per DIPAM guidelines. [Ref: Rule 48]

16. Guidelines on payment of dividends by CPSEs are issued by
(a) the Budget Division
(b) SEBI
(c) DIPAM
(d) the CAG
Ans. (c) DIPAM — Explanation: Rule 48 refers to the guidelines issued by DIPAM. [Ref: Rule 48]

17. The public portal for online collection of non-tax revenues including fees and user charges is called
(a) PFMS-Payments
(b) e-Receipts
(c) e-Procurement
(d) GeM
Ans. (b) e-Receipts — Explanation: Rule 49 asks Ministries to migrate to e-Receipts for convenience and immediate credit. [Ref: Rule 49]

18. The transfer of surplus from the Reserve Bank of India forms part of
(a) dividends and profits under non-tax revenues
(b) tax revenues
(c) disinvestment receipts
(d) borrowings
Ans. (a) dividends and profits under non-tax revenues — Explanation: Rule 48 includes RBI surplus in dividends and profits, a major component of non-tax revenue. [Ref: Rule 48]

19. Any major variation in receipt estimates with reference to past actuals or Budget Estimates shall be
(a) avoided by repeating past figures
(b) supported by cogent reasons
(c) ignored
(d) approved by the CAG
Ans. (b) supported by cogent reasons — Explanation: Rule 45 requires cogent reasons for major variations. [Ref: Rule 45]

20. Tax revenues, non-debt capital receipts including disinvestment, and borrowings are managed by
(a) all Ministries equally
(b) the CAG
(c) State Governments
(d) various Departments of the Ministry of Finance
Ans. (d) various Departments of the Ministry of Finance — Explanation: Rule 46 assigns these to Finance Ministry Departments. [Ref: Rule 46]

21. Under Rule 42, the financial year of the Government commences on
(a) the 1st day of January
(b) the 1st day of July
(c) the 1st day of October
(d) the 1st day of April
Ans. (d) the 1st day of April — Explanation: Rule 42 states the financial year begins on 1 April and ends on 31 March of the following year. [Ref: Rule 42]

22. The Annual Financial Statement is laid before Parliament
(a) in the middle of the financial year
(b) only when the CAG requests
(c) after the end of the financial year
(d) before the commencement of the financial year
Ans. (d) before the commencement of the financial year — Explanation: Rule 43(1) requires laying in respect of a financial year before that year begins. [Ref: Rule 43(1)]

23. "User Charges" are described in GFR 2017 as
(a) a component of the Contingency Fund
(b) a component of borrowings
(c) an important component of non-tax revenues
(d) a type of tax revenue
Ans. (c) an important component of non-tax revenues — Explanation: Rule 47 describes user charges as an important component of non-tax revenues. [Ref: Rule 47]

24. The receipt estimates are prepared by the estimating authorities separately for each
(a) Major Head of Account in the prescribed form
(b) Object Head only
(c) State only
(d) office only
Ans. (a) Major Head of Account in the prescribed form — Explanation: Rule 45 prescribes preparation of receipt estimates for each Major Head. [Ref: Rule 45]

25. Ministries or Departments shall monitor
(a) the personal finances of CPSE employees
(b) timely payments of dividends and profits by CPSEs
(c) the RBI's monetary policy
(d) share prices of listed companies
Ans. (b) timely payments of dividends and profits by CPSEs — Explanation: Rule 48 asks Ministries to monitor timely payment of dividends and profits. [Ref: Rule 48]

Next: Set 6. See all sets under the label GFR 2017. For exam preparation, attempt the full set before checking answers and revise the topic of every question you miss.