What are the main units/topics covered in this MCQ guide?

The guide has two main parts: Unit I — Subject English (British, Indian & world literature, grammar, vocabulary, literary terms, ELT, criticism) and Unit II — Art of Teaching & Other Skills (pedagogy, classroom strategies, assessment).

What kind of questions does the guide provide?

The guide is MCQ-centred: each question includes four options and the correct answer. Questions target authorship, themes, form, devices, grammar and pedagogical scenarios.

How is the poetry section organised in the guide?

Poetry is organised by poet and poem; each entry has targeted MCQs about theme, structure, devices and important lines to support quick revision.

Will this guide help for STET/TET/SET preparation?

Yes. The guide is tailored to match the syllabus and objective-question formats commonly used in teacher eligibility tests such as STET, TET and SET, especially for English literature and pedagogy.

Who are the most famous Australian writers in English?

Some of the most famous Australian writers in English include Patrick White, Henry Lawson, David Malouf, Banjo Paterson, John Flanagan, Thomas Keneally, Peter Carey, Geraldine Brooks, and Paul Jennings.

Who was the first Australian writer awarded the Nobel Prize?

Patrick White was the first Australian writer to be awarded the Nobel Prize in Literature.

Who won the Neustadt International Prize in 2000?

David Malouf won the Neustadt International Prize in the year 2000.

Which work features the narrator Dante?

The character Dante appears in David Malouf's novel 'Johnno'.

Which Australian writer created the character Tim Saddler?

David Malouf created the character Tim Saddler.

Which work by Patrick White won the Miles Franklin Award?

'Voss' by Patrick White won the Miles Franklin Award.

What was Patrick White's first novel?

'Happy Valley' was the first novel written by Patrick White.

Who is known as the Australian 'Bush poet'?

Banjo Paterson is known as the Australian 'Bush poet' for his writings about life in the Australian bush.

Which poet was honoured on an Australian postage stamp?

Both Banjo Paterson and Henry Lawson have been honoured on Australian postage stamps.

Which work by Patrick White addresses homosexuality and his Nobel Prize refusal?

Patrick White discusses these themes in 'Flaws in the Glass: A Self Portrait'.

What type of book is 'Flaws in the Glass: A Self Portrait'?

'Flaws in the Glass: A Self Portrait' is an autobiography by Patrick White.

Which Australian writer was nicknamed 'Mick'?

Banjo Paterson was often referred to as 'Mick'.

When did John Flanagan win the APA Book of the Year?

John Flanagan won the Australian Publishers Association Book of the Year in 2004.

Which work by Thomas Keneally won the Booker Prize?

Thomas Keneally won the Booker Prize for 'Schindler's Ark'.

To whom was 'Schindler's Ark' dedicated?

Thomas Keneally dedicated 'Schindler's Ark' to Poldek Pfefferberg.

Which David Malouf novel won the Miles Franklin Award in 1990?

'The Great World' by David Malouf won the Miles Franklin Award in 1990.

Which work by Henry Lawson depicts 'blackness and loneliness'?

Henry Lawson's 'While the Billy Boils' is known for depicting 'blackness and loneliness'.

When was 'A Song of Republic' by Henry Lawson published?

'A Song of Republic' was published in the Bulletin Magazine in 1887.

Which work is known as the unofficial national anthem of Australia?

'Waltzing Matilda' by Banjo Paterson is considered the unofficial national anthem of Australia.

Which two novels were written by Banjo Paterson?

Banjo Paterson wrote 'An Outback Marriage' and 'The Shearer's Colt'.

Who won the Miles Franklin Award three times?

Peter Carey won the Miles Franklin Award three times.

Literature Hub

Bihar STET Result Published – Check Scorecard & Qualifying Status

2026-01-05T20:11:00.007+05:30

Bihar STET 2025 Result Declared – Check Secondary Teacher Eligibility Test Result Step by Step

The Bihar School Examination Board (BSEB) has officially declared the Bihar Secondary Teacher Eligibility Test (STET) 2025 result. Candidates who appeared for Paper I (Class 9–10) and Paper II (Class 11–12) can now check their results online from the official portal.

Bihar STET 2025 Result

Bihar STET 2025 Result – Latest Update

The Bihar STET 2025 result has been released in online scorecard format. Candidates must log in using their Application Number and Date of Birth to view and download the result.

Official Website to Check Bihar STET Result 2025

Candidates are advised to check their result only through the official BSEB STET website. Avoid unofficial or fake links.

How to Check Bihar STET 2025 Result – Step by Step

Visit the official Bihar STET result website.
Click on the link “Bihar STET 2025 Result”.
A login page will open on the screen.
Enter your Application Number and Date of Birth.
Click on the Submit / View Result button.
Your Bihar STET 2025 scorecard will appear.
Download and take a printout for future use.

Details Mentioned on Bihar STET 2025 Scorecard

Candidate’s Name
Roll Number
Paper (Paper I / Paper II)
Subject Name
Marks Obtained
Qualifying Status (Qualified / Not Qualified)

Candidates should carefully verify all details. In case of any discrepancy, contact BSEB immediately.

Bihar STET 2025 Qualifying Marks

General Category: 50%
OBC / EBC / SC / ST / Women: 40%

What After Bihar STET 2025 Result?

Candidates who qualify the exam will receive the Bihar STET Eligibility Certificate, which is mandatory for applying to Bihar Government Teacher Recruitment.

STET qualification does not guarantee a job
It makes candidates eligible for recruitment
STET certificate validity is lifetime

Important Instructions

Keep a copy of your result safe
Check official notifications for certificate updates
Do not trust third-party websites

Direct Result Link

Click the button below to check your result:

✅ Check Bihar STET 2025 Result Now

If the result page is slow, please try again after some time due to heavy traffic.

Candidates are requested to download the Digital Certificate and preserve it carefully untill he/she gets the original hard copy of the same. The dates of receiving Original Marksheet will be notified shortly on the Official Website.

Check Bhar STET Syllabus and exam patern

Has Bihar STET 2025 result been declared?

Yes, the Bihar School Examination Board (BSEB) has officially declared the Bihar STET 2025 result online.

Where can I check Bihar STET 2025 result?

Candidates can check the Bihar STET 2025 result on the official BSEB STET website using their application number and date of birth.

What login details are required to check the result?

You need your Application Number and Date of Birth to log in and view the Bihar STET 2025 scorecard.

What are the qualifying marks for Bihar STET 2025?

General category candidates must score 50%, while OBC, EBC, SC, ST and women candidates need 40% to qualify.

What after qualifying Bihar STET 2025?

Qualified candidates become eligible to apply for Bihar government teacher recruitment. STET qualification does not guarantee a job.

KVS / NVS Admit Card Download 2025: Direct Link, Steps & Exam Guidelines

2025-12-31T16:32:00.008+05:30

KVS / NVS Admit Card Download 2025: Step-by-Step Guide, Exam Dates & Instructions

KVS/NVS Admit Card Download 2025: Candidates appearing for KVS and NVS recruitment exams can download their admit cards online. This post provides direct steps, exam dates, required documents, and exam day instructions for PGT, TGT, PRT, and non-teaching posts.

📥 KVS / NVS Admit Card Download – Quick Access

Exam: KVS & NVS Recruitment 2025
Posts: PGT, TGT, PRT & Non-Teaching
Mode: Pen and Paper
Status: Admit Card Released / To Be Released
Check your Exam City here
PRT, Junior Secretariat Assistant, Lab Attendant scheduled on 10 Jan 2026 Released Download it Now

The KVS and NVS Admit Card is a crucial document for candidates appearing in various teaching and non-teaching recruitment examinations conducted by Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan (KVS) and Navodaya Vidyalaya Samiti (NVS). Without a valid admit card, candidates are not allowed to enter the examination centre.

In this article, you will find complete details about KVS/NVS admit card download, important dates, step-by-step instructions, exam day guidelines, and FAQs.

📌 Tap to Show Table of Contents

Overview of KVS & NVS Examinations
Importance of KVS/NVS Admit Card
KVS/NVS Admit Card Release Date
How to Download KVS/NVS Admit Card
Details Mentioned on Admit Card
Exam Day Guidelines
Documents Required at Exam Centre
Items Not Allowed
What to Do in Case of Discrepancy
FAQs on KVS/NVS Admit Card

Overview of KVS & NVS Examinations

Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan (KVS) and Navodaya Vidyalaya Samiti (NVS) conduct recruitment examinations for teaching posts such as PGT, TGT, PRT, and various non-teaching positions.

These examinations are conducted at the national level, and lakhs of candidates appear every year. The admit card acts as an entry pass and contains vital exam-related information.

KVS / NVS Exam Date & Schedule 2026

As per the official public notice issued by Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan (KVS) and Navodaya Vidyalaya Samiti (NVS) dated 26 December 2025, the Tier-I examination schedule for various teaching and non-teaching posts has been announced. The examination will be conducted in January 2026 in multiple shifts.

Post	Date of Examination	Timing	Duration
PRT, Junior Secretariat Assistant, Lab Attendant	10 January 2026	9:30 AM – 11:30 AM	2 Hours
Multi-Tasking Staff (HQ/RO Cadre)	10 January 2026	2:30 PM – 4:30 PM	2 Hours
Assistant Commissioner, Principal, Vice-Principal, PGT	11 January 2026	9:30 AM – 11:30 AM	2 Hours
TGT & Miscellaneous Posts (Librarian, AO, FO, Junior Translator, Assistant Engineer, ASO, SSA, Steno Grade I & II)	11 January 2026	2:30 PM – 4:30 PM	2 Hours

Note: The examination city has already been allotted to candidates who have completed the online application process. Requests for change in examination city will not be accepted under any circumstances. The admit card with full exam centre details will be available two days before the examination.

Candidates should regularly check the official websites of CBSE, KVS, and NVS for the latest updates regarding admit card download and exam instructions.

Importance of KVS/NVS Admit Card

The KVS/NVS admit card is an official document issued to eligible candidates. It serves the following purposes:

Acts as proof of candidature
Provides exam date, shift, and venue details
Ensures security and identity verification
Mandatory for entry into the exam hall

Candidates without a printed admit card will not be allowed to appear in the examination.

KVS/NVS Admit Card Release Date

The KVS and NVS admit cards are usually released 7–10 days before the examination date. Candidates should regularly visit the official websites to stay updated.

KVS Official Website: kvsangathan.nic.in
NVS Official Website: navodaya.gov.in

EMRS TGT/PGT and Non-Teaching Answer Key Published Check here

How to Download KVS/NVS Admit Card

Follow the step-by-step process given below to download your admit card:

Visit the official website of KVS or NVS.
Click on the link related to Admit Card Download.
Enter your Application Number and Date of Birth/Password.
Click on the submit button.
Your admit card will appear on the screen.
Download and take a clear printout.

It is advised to keep multiple copies of the admit card for safety.

Details Mentioned on KVS/NVS Admit Card

After downloading the admit card, candidates must verify the following details:

Candidate’s Name
Roll Number
Registration/Application Number
Post Applied For
Exam Date and Time
Exam Centre Address
Photograph and Signature
Important Instructions

KVS/NVS Exam Day Guidelines

Candidates must strictly follow the exam day instructions mentioned on the admit card:

Reach the examination centre well before reporting time
Carry a printed copy of the admit card
Follow seating and biometric verification instructions
Do not indulge in unfair practices

Violation of rules may lead to disqualification.

Documents Required at Exam Centre

Printed KVS/NVS Admit Card
Original valid photo ID proof (Aadhaar Card, Voter ID, Passport, PAN Card, etc.)
Recent passport-size photograph (if required)

Items Not Allowed Inside the Exam Hall

Mobile phones
Smart watches or Bluetooth devices
Books, notes, or study material
Calculators or electronic gadgets

What to Do in Case of Discrepancy in Admit Card

If a candidate notices any incorrect information on the admit card, such as name mismatch, photograph error, or exam centre issue, they should immediately contact the respective authority through official email or helpline numbers.

Do not wait until the exam day to resolve such issues.

People Also Search For

KVS admit card download link
NVS admit card 2025 release date
KVS PGT TGT PRT exam date
NVS exam centre details
KVS NVS hall ticket instructions

FAQs on KVS/NVS Admit Card Download

Is KVS/NVS admit card mandatory for the exam?

Yes, carrying a valid admit card is compulsory to enter the examination hall.

Can I download the admit card without login credentials?

No, you must have your application number and date of birth/password.

Is a digital copy of the admit card allowed?

No, only a printed copy of the admit card is accepted.

What if I forget my admit card on exam day?

In such cases, you will not be permitted to appear for the examination.

Conclusion

The KVS/NVS admit card download process is simple but extremely important. Candidates should download their admit cards on time, verify all details carefully, and follow exam day guidelines strictly to avoid any issues.

Staying updated with official notifications and being well-prepared will help candidates appear for the examination with confidence.

Best wishes to all KVS and NVS aspirants! 🎓

Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

How can I download the KVS/NVS admit card?

You can download the KVS/NVS admit card from the official website by logging in with your application number and date of birth or password.

Is the KVS/NVS admit card mandatory for the exam?

Yes, carrying a printed copy of the admit card is compulsory to enter the examination hall.

When will the KVS/NVS admit card be released?

The admit card is usually released 7–10 days before the examination date on the official website.

What documents should I carry along with the admit card?

You must carry a valid photo ID proof such as Aadhaar Card, Voter ID, Passport, or PAN Card along with the admit card.

What should I do if there is an error on my admit card?

In case of any discrepancy, candidates should immediately contact the KVS or NVS helpdesk for correction.

Download UGC-NET December 2025 Admit Card

2025-12-29T16:55:00.009+05:30

UGC-NET December 2025 Admit Card Released: Exam Scheduled on 31st December 2025

Admit Card for UGC-NET December 2025 examination scheduled to be held on ( 31 Dec 2025, 02, 03, 05, 06 & 07 Jan 2026) is LIVE!

CLICK HERE TO DOWNLOAD YOUR ADMIT CARD

The National Testing Agency (NTA) has officially released the UGC-NET December 2025 Admit Card for candidates whose examination is scheduled to be held on 31st December 2025. Candidates appearing for the examination can now download their admit cards from the official website using their login credentials.

The admit card is a mandatory document for entry into the examination hall. Aspirants are advised to download it as early as possible and carefully check all the details mentioned on it.

UGC-NET December 2025 Exam Overview

Particulars	Details
Exam Name	UGC-NET December 2025
Conducting Authority	National Testing Agency (NTA)
Exam Date	31 Dec 2025, 02, 03, 05, 07 Jan 2026
Mode of Exam	Computer Based Test (CBT)
Admit Card Status	Released
Official Website	ugcnet.nta.ac.in

UGC-NET December 2025 Admit Card: Important Dates

Admit Card Release: December 2025
Examination Date: 31st December 2025, 02, 03, 05, 07 Jan 2026
Shift Timings: As mentioned on the admit card

Candidates must check their reporting time carefully to avoid last-minute issues.

How to Download UGC-NET December 2025 Admit Card

Visit the official UGC-NET website.
Click on the link “Download Admit Card for UGC-NET December 2025”.
Enter your Application Number and Date of Birth.
Click on the submit button.
Your admit card will appear on the screen.
Download and take at least two printouts for future reference.

Details Mentioned on UGC-NET Admit Card 2025

Candidate’s Name
Roll Number
Application Number
Photograph and Signature
Subject Name
Exam Date and Time
Examination Centre Address
Important Instructions

If any discrepancy is found in the admit card, candidates should immediately contact the NTA helpdesk.

UGC-NET December 2025 Exam Day Guidelines

Carry a printed copy of the admit card.
Bring a valid photo identity proof.
Reach the examination centre well before the reporting time.
Electronic gadgets are strictly prohibited.
Follow all instructions given by the invigilators.

Documents Required at the Exam Centre

Printed UGC-NET Admit Card
One original photo ID proof (Aadhaar Card, Voter ID, Passport, etc.)
Passport-size photograph (same as application form)

Items Not Allowed Inside the Exam Hall

Purpose of UGC-NET Examination

The UGC-NET examination is conducted to determine the eligibility of candidates for the following positions:

Assistant Professor
Junior Research Fellowship (JRF)

Qualifying the UGC-NET opens opportunities in teaching and research fields across Indian universities and colleges.

FAQs: UGC-NET December 2025 Admit Card

Is the UGC-NET December 2025 admit card released?

Yes, the admit card for candidates appearing on 31st December 2025 02, 03, 05, 07 Jan 2026has been released.

What details are required to download the admit card?

Candidates need their Application Number and Date of Birth.

Can I appear for the exam without the admit card?

No, entry to the examination hall is not permitted without a valid admit card.

What should I do if there is an error on my admit card?

You should immediately contact the NTA support team for correction.

Conclusion

The release of the UGC-NET December 2025 Admit Card is an important milestone for aspirants appearing on 31st December 2025. Candidates should download their admit cards promptly, verify all details carefully, and strictly follow the examination guidelines for a smooth exam experience.

Best wishes to all UGC-NET aspirants!

KVS/NVS Recruitment 2025: Vacancy Details, Exam Pattern & How to Apply

2025-11-16T22:21:00.000+05:30

KVS/NVS Recruitment 2025: Vacancy Details, Exam Pattern & How to Apply

Tap to expand/collapse

Overview of KVS/NVS Notification 2025
Important Dates
Vacancies & Posts
Eligibility Criteria – At A Glance
Exam Pattern & Syllabus

KVS Syllabus Highlights
NVS Syllabus Highlights

Study Materials & Useful Links
Preparation Tips & Strategy
How to Apply
Conclusion

1. Overview of KVS/NVS Notification 2025

The KVS and NVS have jointly released their recruitment notification Advt. No. 01/2025 for various teaching and non-teaching posts under both organisations. The short notification was published on 13 November 2025. Applications begin on 14 November 2025 and the last date to apply is 04 December 2025. The exam dates have not yet been officially fixed; for KVS the tentative written exam schedule is January–February 2026. This recruitment drive covers a large number of posts in schools across India under KVS and NVS.

2. Important Dates

Event	Date
Notification Release	13 Nov 2025
Online Application Start	14 Nov 2025
Last Date to Apply	04 Dec 2025
Admit Card / Exam Date	To be announced (tentative Jan–Feb 2026)

3. Vacancies & Posts

- For KVS: ~9,126 vacancies for teaching & non-teaching posts.
- For NVS: ~5,841 vacancies for teaching & non-teaching posts.
- Combined total for both: ~14,967 posts.
- Posts include: PRT (Primary Teacher), TGT (Trained Graduate Teacher), PGT (Post Graduate Teacher), Librarian, Vice-Principal, Principal, and various non-teaching roles.

4. Eligibility Criteria – At A Glance

While detailed eligibility varies by post, common criteria include:
- Educational qualification such as Graduation / Post-Graduation + B.Ed (for teaching) or relevant degree (for non-teaching).
- Typical upper age limit around 40 years for many teaching posts.
- Language proficiency in Hindi & English, and sometimes CTET/State TET may be required.
Note: Always check the official notification PDF for the exact eligibility criteria for your desired post.

5. Exam Pattern & Syllabus

5.1 KVS Syllabus Highlights

Part I: General English, General Hindi
Part II: General Knowledge & Current Affairs, Reasoning Ability, Computer Literacy
Part III: Perspectives on Education and Leadership (for teaching posts)
Part IV: Concerned subject (for TGT/PGT)

Exam duration is often 3 hours (180 minutes), with around 150–180 questions.

5.2 NVS Syllabus Highlights

Six parts: Reasoning Ability, General Awareness, ICT, Teaching Aptitude, Domain Subject Knowledge, Language Competency Test (English & Hindi)
Language Competency Test is qualifying in nature.
Domain subject knowledge is at graduation level.

6. Study Materials & Useful Links

You can use these resources to prepare:

7. Preparation Tips & Strategy

- Understand the full syllabus before starting.
- Make a daily study plan covering all sections (GK, reasoning, language, domain).
- For teaching posts, focus deeply on your subject knowledge.
- Revise regularly and give mock tests in exam-like conditions.
- Stay updated with current affairs via daily reading.
- Practice computer literacy questions.
- Improve language skills using comprehension & grammar exercises.

8. How to Apply

Go to the KVS or NVS official site.
Read the notification PDF (Advt. 01/2025) carefully.
Register and fill in the online form between 14 Nov and 04 Dec 2025.
Upload required documents (photo, signature, certificates).
Pay the application fee as per the post.
Submit, and save/print the confirmation page.
Watch for admit card release & exam updates.

9. Conclusion

The KVS/NVS Recruitment 2025 is a great opportunity with nearly 15,000 posts available. To succeed: download the notification, check eligibility for your post, master the syllabus, follow a structured preparation plan, apply before the deadline, and stay alert for further updates.

Frequently Asked Questions (KVS / NVS Recruitment 2025)

1. What is the KVS & NVS Recruitment 2025?

The KVS & NVS Recruitment 2025 is a joint recruitment drive conducted by CBSE for teaching and non-teaching posts in Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan (KVS) and Navodaya Vidyalaya Samiti (NVS). A total of **14,967** vacancies have been announced. :contentReference[oaicite:0]{index=0}

2. When can I apply for these jobs?

The online application window opens on **14 November 2025** and closes on **04 December 2025**. :contentReference[oaicite:1]{index=1}

3. How many vacancies are there and how are they divided?

There are **14,967** total vacancies: ~9,126 posts in KVS and ~5,841 in NVS. :contentReference[oaicite:2]{index=2}

4. What are the types of posts available?

The recruitment includes both **teaching** (PRT, TGT, PGT, Special Educators) and **non-teaching** roles (e.g. administrative staff, stenographers). :contentReference[oaicite:3]{index=3}

5. What is the eligibility criteria?

Eligibility varies by post: - For **PGT**: Post-graduation + B.Ed. :contentReference[oaicite:4]{index=4} - For **TGT**: Graduation + B.Ed / relevant degree. :contentReference[oaicite:5]{index=5} - For **PRT**: 10+2 (or equivalent) with D.El.Ed / B.El.Ed. :contentReference[oaicite:6]{index=6} - Age limits differ by post, with relaxations for SC / ST / OBC categories. :contentReference[oaicite:7]{index=7}

6. What is the application fee?

Yes, there is an application fee: - For PGT, TGT, PRT, non-teaching posts: **₹ 1,500** + **₹ 500** processing fee. :contentReference[oaicite:8]{index=8} - For senior posts like Principal / Assistant Commissioner: higher fee (~₹ 2,300) + ₹ 500 processing. :contentReference[oaicite:9]{index=9} - SC / ST / PwBD / Ex-servicemen pay only the processing fee in many cases as per notification. :contentReference[oaicite:10]{index=10}

7. How is the selection process structured?

The selection process generally includes: 1. **Tier-1 written exam** (objective type) :contentReference[oaicite:11]{index=11} 2. **Tier-2 exam** (main + descriptive for some posts) :contentReference[oaicite:12]{index=12} 3. **Interview / Skill Test** (post dependent) :contentReference[oaicite:13]{index=13} 4. **Document verification and medical exam** for shortlisted candidates. :contentReference[oaicite:14]{index=14}

8. What is the exam pattern?

- **Tier-1**: Objective test (OMR / CBT), negative marking may apply. :contentReference[oaicite:15]{index=15} - **Tier-2**: Combination of objective + descriptive (for some roles), focusing on subject knowledge. :contentReference[oaicite:16]{index=16} - The weightage: Tier-2 score + Interview / Skill test (if applicable) forms the final merit. :contentReference[oaicite:17]{index=17}

9. What is the pay scale / salary for these posts?

According to the notification, the pay scale varies by post: - PRT: ~₹ 35,400 onwards (7th CPC) :contentReference[oaicite:18]{index=18} - Higher posts like Principal or Assistant Commissioner have higher pay levels under 7th CPC. :contentReference[oaicite:19]{index=19}

10. Is the application only online?

Yes, the application is completely **online**. Applicants will need to apply through the official portals of CBSE, KVS, or NVS. :contentReference[oaicite:20]{index=20}

11. Which websites are official for application?

You can apply via: - **CBSE Recruitment Portal** :contentReference[oaicite:21]{index=21} - **KVS Official Website (kvsangathan.nic.in)** :contentReference[oaicite:22]{index=22} - **NVS Official Website (navodaya.gov.in)** :contentReference[oaicite:23]{index=23}

12. When will the exam date / admit card be announced?

As of now, **CBSE has not announced exact exam dates**. According to media reports, the exam dates are yet to be fixed. :contentReference[oaicite:24]{index=24}

13. Can SC / ST / PwBD / Ex-servicemen apply, and what about fee concessions?

Yes — these categories are eligible. Fee concession: SC / ST / PwBD / Ex-servicemen may pay reduced exam fee or just the processing fee (₹ 500), depending on the post. :contentReference[oaicite:25]{index=25}

14. How are reserved posts / age relaxations handled?

Age relaxation is provided as per government norms (e.g. SC / ST, OBC). :contentReference[oaicite:26]{index=26} Reservation for different categories (SC, ST, OBC, PwBD) is likely to apply for the posts, as indicated in the notification. :contentReference[oaicite:27]{index=27}

15. Whom should I contact for official clarification or help?

For any queries, always refer to the **official notification PDF** or the recruitment section on the official sites: CBSE, KVS, and NVS. Use the “Contact / Helpdesk” details given in the notification for any recruitment-specific issues. :contentReference[oaicite:28]{index=28}

Clauses and Its Types: Definitions, Examples, and 100 MCQs with Answers

2025-10-22T22:13:00.005+05:30

Clauses and Its Types: Definitions, Examples, and 100 MCQs with Answers

Published on: October 22, 2025

📖 Table of Contents

🔹 Definition of Clause

A clause is a group of words that contains both a subject and a verb. A clause may be an independent sentence or it may be a dependent (subordinate) clause that needs another clause to complete its meaning.

Example: I know that she is honest. (that she is honest = clause)

🔹 Types of Clauses

1. Independent Clause

An independent clause expresses a complete thought and can stand alone as a sentence. Example: She reads every day.

2. Dependent (Subordinate) Clause

A dependent clause cannot stand alone and depends on a main clause to make sense. Example: Because she was tired, she slept early.

🔹 Kinds of Subordinate Clauses

a. Noun Clause

A noun clause acts like a noun — it can be a subject, object, or complement. Example: I know that honesty is important.

b. Adjective Clause

An adjective clause (relative clause) modifies a noun. It often begins with who, whom, whose, which, that. Example: The book that I bought is good.

c. Adverb Clause

An adverb clause modifies a verb, adjective, or other adverb — telling when, where, why, how, or under what condition. Example: I will call you when I arrive.

🔹 Examples of Clauses

Independent clause: She runs fast.
Noun clause: What he said was true. (subject)
Adjective clause: The man who is standing there is my uncle.
Adverb clause: He left because he was angry.

100 MCQs Clauses and Its Types:—( Click to Show Answer )

Each question has four options (a–d). Click the Show Answer button to reveal the correct answer.

1. A clause must contain a _______.

a) Noun
b) Verb
c) Adjective
d) Preposition

Answer: b) Verb

2. Which of the following is an independent clause?

a) Because it was raining
b) When she comes
c) She plays the piano
d) If I were you

Answer: c) She plays the piano

3. A dependent clause cannot _______.

a) Have a subject
b) Have a verb
c) Stand alone
d) Contain objects

Answer: c) Stand alone

4. Identify the clause: “He said that he was tired.”

a) Adverb clause
b) Adjective clause
c) Noun clause
d) Independent clause

Answer: c) Noun clause

5. Which sentence contains two clauses?

a) I went to school.
b) My friend arrived.
c) I went to school and met my friend.
d) Walking to school.

Answer: c) I went to school and met my friend.

6. The clause “when it rains” is a _______.

a) Noun clause
b) Adjective clause
c) Adverb clause
d) Independent clause

Answer: c) Adverb clause

7. Identify the adjective clause: “The boy who won the race is my brother.”

a) The boy
b) who won the race
c) is my brother
d) The boy who

Answer: b) who won the race

8. A noun clause can function as a _______.

a) Subject
b) Object
c) Complement
d) All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above

9. “She said that she was coming.” – Clause type?

a) Adjective clause
b) Noun clause
c) Adverb clause
d) Independent clause

Answer: b) Noun clause

10. “I don’t know where he lives.” – Clause type?

a) Adjective clause
b) Noun clause
c) Adverb clause
d) Independent clause

Answer: b) Noun clause

11. “The book that you gave me is good.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adverb clause
c) Adjective clause
d) Independent clause

Answer: c) Adjective clause

12. “Because she was tired, she went home.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adjective clause
c) Adverb clause
d) Independent clause

Answer: c) Adverb clause

13. “That she passed the test made her happy.” – Clause acting as?

a) Adverb
b) Object
c) Subject
d) Modifier

Answer: c) Subject

14. “I will come if you invite me.” – Type of ‘if’ clause?

a) Noun clause
b) Adjective clause
c) Adverb clause (condition)
d) Independent clause

Answer: c) Adverb clause (condition)

15. “The car which he bought was expensive.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adjective clause
c) Adverb clause
d) Independent clause

Answer: b) Adjective clause

16. “What you said is true.” – Clause type?

a) Adjective clause
b) Noun clause
c) Adverb clause
d) Independent clause

Answer: b) Noun clause

17. “When he arrived, we were eating.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adverb clause
c) Adjective clause
d) Independent clause

Answer: b) Adverb clause

18. “The man who stole the purse was caught.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adverb clause
c) Adjective clause
d) Independent clause

Answer: c) Adjective clause

19. “I know that you are right.” – Clause type?

a) Adverb clause
b) Noun clause
c) Adjective clause
d) Independent clause

Answer: b) Noun clause

20. “If it rains, we will stay home.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adverb clause (condition)
c) Adjective clause
d) Independent clause

Answer: b) Adverb clause (condition)

21. “I don’t like what you did.” – Clause type?

a) Adjective clause
b) Noun clause
c) Adverb clause
d) Independent clause

Answer: b) Noun clause

22. “I remember the day when we met.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adverb clause
c) Adjective clause
d) Independent clause

Answer: c) Adjective clause

23. “Although he was ill, he went to work.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adverb clause (concession)
c) Adjective clause
d) Independent clause

Answer: b) Adverb clause (concession)

24. “This is the place where I was born.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adjective clause (relative)
c) Adverb clause
d) Independent clause

Answer: b) Adjective clause (relative)

25. “He said that he would come.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adjective clause
c) Adverb clause
d) Independent clause

Answer: a) Noun clause

26. “Unless you study, you will fail.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adjective clause
c) Adverb clause (condition)
d) Independent clause

Answer: c) Adverb clause (condition)

27. “The woman who lives next door is a doctor.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adverb clause
c) Adjective clause
d) Independent clause

Answer: c) Adjective clause

28. “I don’t know why he left.” – Clause type?

a) Adjective clause
b) Noun clause
c) Adverb clause
d) Independent clause

Answer: b) Noun clause

29. “Since it was late, we went home.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adjective clause
c) Adverb clause (reason)
d) Independent clause

Answer: c) Adverb clause (reason)

30. “The movie which we watched was amazing.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adverb clause
c) Adjective clause (relative)
d) Independent clause

Answer: c) Adjective clause (relative)

31. “He works harder than I do.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adverb clause of comparison
c) Adjective clause
d) Independent clause

Answer: b) Adverb clause of comparison

32. “That she could dance surprised us.” – Clause acting as?

a) Object
b) Subject
c) Adverbial
d) Modifier

Answer: b) Subject

33. “The boy whom I met yesterday is polite.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adverb clause
c) Adjective clause (relative)
d) Independent clause

Answer: c) Adjective clause (relative)

34. “If you study hard, you will pass.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adverb clause (condition)
c) Adjective clause
d) Independent clause

Answer: b) Adverb clause (condition)

35. “Whatever you decide is fine with me.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adjective clause
c) Adverb clause
d) Independent clause

Answer: a) Noun clause

36. “The teacher who teaches English is kind.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adverb clause
c) Adjective clause
d) Independent clause

Answer: c) Adjective clause

37. “He came because he needed help.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adverb clause (reason)
c) Adjective clause
d) Independent clause

Answer: b) Adverb clause (reason)

38. “She smiled when she saw me.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adjective clause
c) Adverb clause (time)
d) Independent clause

Answer: c) Adverb clause (time)

39. “I don’t believe what he says.” – Clause type?

a) Adjective clause
b) Noun clause (object)
c) Adverb clause
d) Independent clause

Answer: b) Noun clause (object)

40. “The house that Jack built is strong.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adjective clause (relative)
c) Adverb clause
d) Independent clause

Answer: b) Adjective clause (relative)

41. “He cried because he was hurt.” – Clause type?

a) Adjective clause
b) Noun clause
c) Adverb clause (reason)
d) Independent clause

Answer: c) Adverb clause (reason)

42. “The person who helped you is my friend.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adjective clause (relative)
c) Adverb clause
d) Independent clause

Answer: b) Adjective clause (relative)

43. “That he failed surprised everyone.” – Clause acting as?

a) Adverbial
b) Subject
c) Object
d) Modifier

Answer: b) Subject

44. “The time when he arrived was midnight.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adverb clause
c) Adjective clause (relative)
d) Independent clause

Answer: c) Adjective clause (relative)

45. “As she was tired, she rested.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adjective clause
c) Adverb clause (reason)
d) Independent clause

Answer: c) Adverb clause (reason)

46. “The girl whose pen I borrowed is absent.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adverb clause
c) Adjective clause (possessive relative)
d) Independent clause

Answer: c) Adjective clause (possessive relative)

47. “Whoever comes first will get the prize.” – Clause type?

a) Adjective clause
b) Adverb clause
c) Noun clause (subject)
d) Independent clause

Answer: c) Noun clause (subject)

48. “He left after he finished the work.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adverb clause (time)
c) Adjective clause
d) Independent clause

Answer: b) Adverb clause (time)

49. “This is the book which I wanted.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adjective clause (relative)
c) Adverb clause
d) Independent clause

Answer: b) Adjective clause (relative)

50. “Because she worked hard, she succeeded.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adjective clause
c) Adverb clause (reason)
d) Independent clause

Answer: c) Adverb clause (reason)

51. “I believe that he is innocent.” – Clause type?

a) Adjective clause
b) Adverb clause
c) Noun clause (object)
d) Independent clause

Answer: c) Noun clause (object)

52. “The man who was talking to you is my father.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adjective clause (relative)
c) Adverb clause
d) Independent clause

Answer: b) Adjective clause (relative)

53. “Although it was cold, we went out.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adjective clause
c) Adverb clause (concession)
d) Independent clause

Answer: c) Adverb clause (concession)

54. “He said that he would help us.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause (object)
b) Adverb clause
c) Adjective clause
d) Independent clause

Answer: a) Noun clause (object)

55. “The reason why he left is unknown.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adverb clause
c) Adjective clause (relative)
d) Independent clause

Answer: c) Adjective clause (relative)

56. “After we had lunch, we went shopping.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adjective clause
c) Adverb clause (time)
d) Independent clause

Answer: c) Adverb clause (time)

57. “The person whom I trust most is you.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adverb clause
c) Adjective clause (relative)
d) Independent clause

Answer: c) Adjective clause (relative)

58. “That he is honest is known to all.” – Clause acting as?

a) Object
b) Subject
c) Adverbial
d) Modifier

Answer: b) Subject

59. “If you run fast, you will win.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adjective clause
c) Adverb clause (condition)
d) Independent clause

Answer: c) Adverb clause (condition)

60. “The day when we met was special.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adverb clause
c) Adjective clause (relative)
d) Independent clause

Answer: c) Adjective clause (relative)

61. “What you say doesn’t matter.” – Clause type?

a) Adjective clause
b) Noun clause
c) Adverb clause
d) Independent clause

Answer: b) Noun clause

62. “The film which I saw was great.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adverb clause
c) Adjective clause (relative)
d) Independent clause

Answer: c) Adjective clause (relative)

63. “Because he was late, he missed the train.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adjective clause
c) Adverb clause (reason)
d) Independent clause

Answer: c) Adverb clause (reason)

64. “Whoever wins will represent the school.” – Clause type?

a) Adjective clause
b) Noun clause (subject)
c) Adverb clause
d) Independent clause

Answer: b) Noun clause (subject)

65. “The boy who broke the window was punished.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adverb clause
c) Adjective clause (relative)
d) Independent clause

Answer: c) Adjective clause (relative)

66. “She sings better than I do.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adverb clause of comparison
c) Adjective clause
d) Independent clause

Answer: b) Adverb clause of comparison

67. “What you did was wrong.” – Clause type?

a) Adjective clause
b) Noun clause
c) Adverb clause
d) Independent clause

Answer: b) Noun clause

68. “He left before I arrived.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adverb clause (time)
c) Adjective clause
d) Independent clause

Answer: b) Adverb clause (time)

69. “The reason that he left is unclear.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adverb clause
c) Adjective clause (relative)
d) Independent clause

Answer: c) Adjective clause (relative)

70. “I think that you are right.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause (object)
b) Adjective clause
c) Adverb clause
d) Independent clause

Answer: a) Noun clause (object)

71. “Although he is poor, he is happy.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adverb clause (concession)
c) Adjective clause
d) Independent clause

Answer: b) Adverb clause (concession)

72. “The man who sold me the car was honest.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adjective clause (relative)
c) Adverb clause
d) Independent clause

Answer: b) Adjective clause (relative)

73. “That she lied made him angry.” – Clause acting as?

a) Adverbial
b) Subject
c) Object
d) Modifier

Answer: b) Subject

74. “He will wait until you come.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adjective clause
c) Adverb clause (time)
d) Independent clause

Answer: c) Adverb clause (time)

75. “The place where he lives is beautiful.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adverb clause
c) Adjective clause (relative)
d) Independent clause

Answer: c) Adjective clause (relative)

76. “If it rains, we won’t go out.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adjective clause
c) Adverb clause (condition)
d) Independent clause

Answer: c) Adverb clause (condition)

77. “The person whom I met was polite.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adverb clause
c) Adjective clause (relative)
d) Independent clause

Answer: c) Adjective clause (relative)

78. “That he succeeded surprised us.” – Clause acting as?

a) Object
b) Subject (noun clause)
c) Adverbial
d) Modifier

Answer: b) Subject (noun clause)

79. “She left because she was tired.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adjective clause
c) Adverb clause (reason)
d) Independent clause

Answer: c) Adverb clause (reason)

80. “The movie that I watched was exciting.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adverb clause
c) Adjective clause (relative)
d) Independent clause

Answer: c) Adjective clause (relative)

81. “Whatever you decide is fine with me.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adjective clause
c) Adverb clause
d) Independent clause

Answer: a) Noun clause

82. “He ran so fast that he fell.” – Clause type?

a) Adjective clause
b) Noun clause
c) Adverb clause of result
d) Independent clause

Answer: c) Adverb clause of result

83. “The reason why I left is personal.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adverb clause
c) Adjective clause (relative)
d) Independent clause

Answer: c) Adjective clause (relative)

84. “If you come early, we will start soon.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adjective clause
c) Adverb clause (condition)
d) Independent clause

Answer: c) Adverb clause (condition)

85. “I know the girl who lives next door.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adjective clause (relative)
c) Adverb clause
d) Independent clause

Answer: b) Adjective clause (relative)

86. “He works harder than I do.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adverb clause of comparison
c) Adjective clause
d) Independent clause

Answer: b) Adverb clause of comparison

87. “She said that she would help.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause (object)
b) Adverb clause
c) Adjective clause
d) Independent clause

Answer: a) Noun clause (object)

88. “Since it was late, we went home.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adverb clause (reason)
c) Adjective clause
d) Independent clause

Answer: b) Adverb clause (reason)

89. “Do whatever you think is right.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adjective clause
c) Adverb clause
d) Independent clause

Answer: a) Noun clause

90. “The man whom I met yesterday is a teacher.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adjective clause (relative)
c) Adverb clause
d) Independent clause

Answer: b) Adjective clause (relative)

91. “Although it was raining, he went out.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adverb clause (concession)
c) Adjective clause
d) Independent clause

Answer: b) Adverb clause (concession)

92. “I know that he is honest.” – Clause type?

a) Adjective clause
b) Noun clause (object)
c) Adverb clause
d) Independent clause

Answer: b) Noun clause (object)

93. “The house which Jack built is old.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adjective clause (relative)
c) Adverb clause
d) Independent clause

Answer: b) Adjective clause (relative)

94. “If she calls, tell her I’m busy.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adjective clause
c) Adverb clause (condition)
d) Independent clause

Answer: c) Adverb clause (condition)

95. “That you failed doesn’t matter.” – Clause acting as?

a) Object
b) Subject (noun clause)
c) Adverbial
d) Modifier

Answer: b) Subject (noun clause)

96. “The teacher who taught us English is retired.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adjective clause (relative)
c) Adverb clause
d) Independent clause

Answer: b) Adjective clause (relative)

97. “As he was ill, he didn’t come.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adjective clause
c) Adverb clause (reason)
d) Independent clause

Answer: c) Adverb clause (reason)

98. “The reason why he cried is unknown.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adverb clause
c) Adjective clause (relative)
d) Independent clause

Answer: c) Adjective clause (relative)

99. “That he spoke rudely upset everyone.” – Clause acting as?

a) Adverbial
b) Subject (noun clause)
c) Object
d) Modifier

Answer: b) Subject (noun clause)

100. “When you study, focus properly.” – Clause type?

a) Noun clause
b) Adjective clause
c) Adverb clause (time)
d) Independent clause

Answer: c) Adverb clause (time)

✅ Conclusion

Clauses are essential building blocks of English grammar. Mastering independent and dependent clauses — and recognizing noun, adjective, and adverb clauses — will improve reading, writing, and test performance. Use the MCQs above to practice and test yourself — click the "Show Answer" button after you attempt each question.

❓ Frequently Asked Questions on Clauses

1. What is a clause?

A clause is a group of words that includes a subject and a predicate. It can be independent or dependent.

2. What are the two main types of clauses?

The two main types of clauses are Independent Clauses and Dependent (Subordinate) Clauses.

3. What are the three types of subordinate clauses?

They are Noun Clause, Adjective Clause, and Adverb Clause.

4. What is an Independent Clause?

An independent clause expresses a complete thought and can stand alone as a sentence. Example: She sings beautifully.

5. What is a Dependent Clause?

A dependent clause does not express a complete thought and depends on the main clause for meaning. Example: Because she was late.

6. Give an example of a Noun Clause.

I believe that honesty is the best policy. (that honesty is the best policy = Noun Clause)

7. Give an example of an Adjective Clause.

The book that you gave me is interesting. (that you gave me = Adjective Clause)

8. Give an example of an Adverb Clause.

I will call you when I reach home. (when I reach home = Adverb Clause)

9. How do clauses differ from phrases?

A clause has both subject and verb, whereas a phrase does not contain both.

10. Why are clauses important in grammar?

Clauses help in forming complex and meaningful sentences, improving clarity and fluency in writing.

Antonyms, Synonyms, Phrasal Verbs and Idioms with Examples, Meanings & MCQs

2025-10-19T18:35:00.003+05:30

Antonyms, Synonyms, Phrasal Verbs, and Idioms – Complete English Vocabulary Guide

English Vocabulary is the foundation of effective communication and one of the key areas for exams like Bihar STET English Paper II, SSC, Banking, and UPSC. This post covers the most Repeatedly Asked Antonyms, Synonyms, Phrasal Verbs, and Idioms with meanings, examples, and MCQs.

1. What are Antonyms?

Antonyms are words with opposite meanings. They help express contrast and develop clarity in communication.

2. List of Common Antonyms (50+)

Word	Antonym
Accept	Reject
Active	Inactive
Advance	Retreat
Ancient	Modern
Arrive	Depart
Artificial	Natural
Awake	Asleep
Brave	Cowardly
Broad	Narrow
Build	Destroy
Calm	Agitated
Cheap	Expensive
Clean	Dirty
Combine	Separate
Complex	Simple
Construct	Demolish
Courage	Fear
Cruel	Kind
Dark	Light
Defeat	Victory
Deliberate	Accidental
Despair	Hope
Easy	Difficult
Empty	Full
Expand	Contract
Friend	Enemy
Generous	Mean
Genuine	Fake
Harmful	Beneficial
Include	Exclude
Joy	Sorrow
Knowledge	Ignorance
Laugh	Cry
Major	Minor
Polite	Rude
Permanent	Temporary
Quiet	Noisy
Rise	Fall
Safe	Dangerous
Sharp	Dull
Success	Failure
Thick	Thin
True	False
Victory	Defeat
Visible	Invisible
Wealth	Poverty
Wise	Foolish

3. What are Synonyms?

Synonyms are words that have the same or similar meanings. They help you vary your language and avoid repetition.

4. List of Common Synonyms (50+)

Word	Synonyms
Accurate	Exact, Correct, Precise
Amazing	Wonderful, Astonishing, Incredible
Angry	Furious, Irritated, Annoyed
Answer	Reply, Response, Solution
Beautiful	Attractive, Lovely, Gorgeous
Begin	Start, Commence, Initiate
Brave	Bold, Courageous, Fearless
Bright	Shining, Radiant, Luminous
Calm	Peaceful, Serene, Tranquil
Care	Concern, Attention, Caution
Change	Alter, Modify, Transform
Choose	Select, Pick, Opt
Clean	Neat, Tidy, Pure
Cold	Chilly, Freezing, Icy
Danger	Peril, Risk, Hazard
Delicious	Tasty, Savory, Appetizing
Easy	Simple, Effortless, Smooth
End	Finish, Conclude, Terminate
Famous	Well-known, Renowned, Popular
Fast	Quick, Rapid, Speedy
Funny	Humorous, Amusing, Comical
Happy	Joyful, Cheerful, Content
Hard	Difficult, Tough, Challenging
Honest	Truthful, Loyal, Sincere
Important	Significant, Essential, Vital
Intelligent	Smart, Clever, Bright
Kind	Generous, Compassionate, Benevolent
Lazy	Idle, Sluggish, Inactive
Old	Ancient, Aged, Elderly
Polite	Civil, Courteous, Respectful
Quiet	Silent, Calm, Peaceful
Rich	Wealthy, Affluent, Prosperous
Sad	Unhappy, Miserable, Gloomy
Small	Little, Tiny, Petite
Strong	Powerful, Sturdy, Robust
Truth	Fact, Reality, Verity
Value	Worth, Importance, Significance
Weak	Frail, Feeble, Delicate
Wise	Intelligent, Prudent, Sensible

5. What are Phrasal Verbs?

Phrasal Verbs are combinations of a verb and one or more particles (prepositions/adverbs) that create a meaning different from the base verb.

6. List of Common Phrasal Verbs (30+)

Phrasal Verb	Meaning
Break down	To stop working
Bring up	To raise a child or topic
Call off	To cancel
Carry on	To continue
Come across	To find unexpectedly
Cut off	To disconnect
Drop out	To leave school or college
Find out	To discover
Give up	To stop trying
Go on	To continue
Look after	To take care of
Look for	To search
Look forward to	To anticipate with pleasure
Make up	To invent or reconcile
Put off	To postpone
Run out of	To have no more left
Set up	To establish
Take off	To remove or begin flight
Turn down	To reject
Work out	To exercise or solve a problem

7. What are Idioms?

Idioms are phrases whose meanings are not literal but understood through usage. They make language more expressive and natural.

8. List of Common Idioms (30+)

Idiom	Meaning
Break the ice	To start a conversation
Once in a blue moon	Very rarely
Piece of cake	Something very easy
Hit the nail on the head	To describe something exactly
Under the weather	Feeling sick
Burn the midnight oil	To work late into the night
When pigs fly	Something impossible
Spill the beans	To reveal a secret
Let the cat out of the bag	To reveal a secret unintentionally
Call it a day	Stop working for now
On cloud nine	Extremely happy
Bite the bullet	Face a difficult situation bravely
Back to square one	To start over again
Hit the sack	To go to bed
Go the extra mile	To make more effort than expected
Kill two birds with one stone	Achieve two things at once
Miss the boat	To miss an opportunity
Break a leg	Good luck!
Keep an eye on	To watch carefully
Cost an arm and a leg	To be very expensive
Jump the gun	To act before the right time
Cut corners	To do something carelessly
All ears	Listening eagerly
In hot water	In trouble
Throw in the towel	To give up

What are antonyms?

Antonyms are words with opposite meanings (for example: accept — reject; brave — cowardly). They help express contrast and clarity in communication.

Source: Literature Hub vocabulary guide.

Give examples of common antonyms included in the post

Examples from the post: accept — reject, awake — asleep, calm — agitated, cheap — expensive, true — false, wise — foolish, visible — invisible, etc.

Source: The article’s "List of Common Antonyms".

What are synonyms and how are they useful?

Synonyms are words with similar meanings (for example: happy — joyful; fast — quick). They help vary language, avoid repetition, and improve expression in writing and speaking.

Source: Literature Hub vocabulary guide.

What are phrasal verbs? Provide examples from the post.

Phrasal verbs combine a verb with a particle (preposition/adverb) to create meaning (e.g., "give up" — to stop trying; "look after" — to take care of; "set up" — to establish).

Source: The article’s "List of Common Phrasal Verbs".

What are idioms? Examples from the article.

Idioms are phrases whose meaning isn’t literal but established by usage — e.g., "break the ice" (start a conversation), "piece of cake" (very easy), "once in a blue moon" (very rarely).

Source: The article’s "List of Common Idioms".

How can I use these lists to prepare for Bihar STET / other exams?

Focus on repeated antonyms/synonyms, practice phrasal verbs and idioms with example sentences, and attempt the MCQs at the end of the post. Make flashcards and revise regularly for retention.

Tip: the post contains practice MCQs and examples to help exam prep.

Can I copy these lists into my notes or classroom handouts?

Yes — you're free to use the lists for personal study or classroom handouts. If publishing elsewhere, please credit Literature Hub and link back to the original post.

Source & author info available on the post page.

MCQ Guide for Bihar STET English Paper II: British, Indian & World Literature + ELT & Theory

2025-10-06T21:09:00.030+05:30

Bihar STET English Paper ll: Topic wise MCQ

Bihar STET English Paper II Overview:
Bihar STET (Secondary Teacher Eligibility Test) Paper II is designed for candidates aspiring to teach at the secondary level (classes 10–12) in Bihar schools. The English section evaluates a candidate’s proficiency in language skills, comprehension, literature, and pedagogy. It covers topics such as English grammar, vocabulary, reading comprehension, literary texts (both Indian and British), and methods of teaching English. The paper also tests understanding of classroom strategies, assessment techniques, and the ability to engage students effectively. Preparing for this paper requires a blend of language mastery and knowledge of educational principles, making it crucial for aspiring secondary English teachers in Bihar.
Bihar STET MCQ for Paper-ll English

CHECK HERE👇

Bihar STET 2025: Complete Guide, Exam Pattern, Eligibility, and Preparation Tips

Unit I: Subject English (100 Marks)

1.1 British Poetry
1.2 British Drama
1.3 British Prose & Fiction
1.4 British Literary Criticism
1.5 Indian Poetry
1.6 Indian Drama
1.7 Indian Prose & Fiction
1.8 American Literature
1.9 Post-colonial Literature
1.10 Language & Linguistics
1.11 Grammar, Vocabulary & Literary Terms
1.12 English Language Teaching (ELT)
1.13 Contemporary Criticism & Literary Theory
1.14 Literature of the Marginalised

Unit II: Art of Teaching & Other Skills (50 Marks)

2.1 Art of Teaching
2.2 Other Skills

Unit I: Subject English (100 Marks)

1.1 British Poetry

MCQ on History of British Poetry and the following poems:

a) Spenser’s Sonnet No. 67- “Like as a Huntsman…”,

b) Shakespeare’s Sonnet No. 127- “In Old Age…”,

c) John Donne- “The Sunne Rising”

d) Alexander Pope-“The Rape of the Lock”, Canto 1, 2 and 3 of 1714 edn.

e) William Blake – “The Lamb” and “The Tyger”

f) William Wordsworth- “Tintern Abbey”

g) P. B. Shelley- “Ozymandias”

h) John Keats- “Ode on a Grecian Urn”

i) Tennyson- “Break, Break, Break”

j) Arnold- “The Scholar Gypsy” first 200 lines

k) W.B. Yeats- “The Second Coming” and “Sailing to Byzantium”

l) T.S. Eliot- “The Hollow Men”

m) Philip Larkin- “Church Going”

n) Seamus Heaney- “Punishment”

Edmund Spenser – Sonnet No. 67 “Like as a Huntsman…” MCQs with Answers

1. Who is the poet of “Like as a Huntsman…”?

A) William Shakespeare
B) Edmund Spenser
C) Sir Philip Sidney
D) John Donne
Answer: B) Edmund Spenser

2. “Like as a Huntsman…” belongs to which sonnet sequence?

A) Astrophil and Stella
B) Amoretti
C) Sonnets from the Portuguese
D) The Faerie Queene
Answer: B) Amoretti

3. What is the central metaphor used in this sonnet?

A) A battle between soldiers
B) A sailor searching for land
C) A huntsman chasing a deer
D) A farmer tending crops
Answer: C) A huntsman chasing a deer

4. What does the “hunt” in the poem symbolize?

A) Political ambition
B) The poet’s pursuit of his beloved
C) The search for truth
D) A literal hunting scene
Answer: B) The poet’s pursuit of his beloved

5. In the poem, what does the deer represent?

A) Wealth and fame
B) The beloved woman
C) Freedom and nature
D) Sin and temptation
Answer: B) The beloved woman

6. How does the deer finally behave toward the huntsman?

A) It escapes into the forest
B) It willingly returns to him
C) It attacks the hunter
D) It remains indifferent
Answer: B) It willingly returns to him

7. What change occurs in the huntsman’s attitude at the end of the poem?

A) From anger to peace
B) From desire to detachment
C) From frustration to gratitude
D) From jealousy to hatred
Answer: C) From frustration to gratitude

8. The line “So after long pursuit and vain assay” suggests—

A) Success in hunting
B) Failure and exhaustion in pursuit
C) Triumph and celebration
D) Rest and contentment
Answer: B) Failure and exhaustion in pursuit

9. What literary device dominates the poem?

A) Simile and extended metaphor
B) Irony
C) Hyperbole
D) Allusion to mythology
Answer: A) Simile and extended metaphor

10. What message about love does the poem convey?

A) Love is a game of chance
B) True love comes naturally, not by force
C) Love depends on wealth
D) Love always ends in sorrow
Answer: B) True love comes naturally, not by force

11. The tone of the sonnet changes from—

A) Joyful to tragic
B) Despairing to peaceful
C) Proud to humble
D) Angry to jealous
Answer: B) Despairing to peaceful

12. What does the huntsman’s rest symbolize?

A) The end of the chase
B) Acceptance and patience in love
C) Death and silence
D) Disinterest in beauty
Answer: B) Acceptance and patience in love

13. The deer “came to my hand” implies—

A) The beloved finally accepted the poet’s love
B) The poet captured the animal by force
C) The deer was wounded
D) The hunt continued endlessly
Answer: A) The beloved finally accepted the poet’s love

14. What is the rhyme scheme of Spenser’s Sonnet No. 67?

A) ABAB CDCD EFEF GG
B) ABAB BCBC CDCD EE
C) ABBA ABBA CDE CDE
D) AABB CCDD EEFF GG
Answer: B) ABAB BCBC CDCD EE

15. What aspect of love is idealized in the poem?

A) Patience and divine grace in winning love
B) Passion and jealousy
C) Control and dominance
D) Rejection and sorrow
Answer: A) Patience and divine grace in winning love

William Shakespeare – Sonnet No. 127 “In the old age black was not counted fair” MCQs with Answers for Bihar STET English Paper ll

1. Who is the poet of “In the old age black was not counted fair”?

A) Edmund Spenser
B) William Shakespeare
C) Sir Philip Sidney
D) John Donne
Answer: B) William Shakespeare

2. What is the main theme of Sonnet 127?

A) The fading of youth
B) The redefinition of beauty and appearance
C) The joy of love
D) The power of imagination
Answer: B) The redefinition of beauty and appearance

3. The line “In the old age black was not counted fair” suggests—

A) Black was seen as a sign of ugliness in the past
B) Black was the most admired color
C) People preferred darkness to light
D) Black represented wisdom
Answer: A) Black was seen as a sign of ugliness in the past

4. To whom is this sonnet addressed?

A) The Fair Youth
B) The Dark Lady
C) The Rival Poet
D) The Queen
Answer: B) The Dark Lady

5. What does the poet imply by saying “But now is black beauty’s successive heir”?

A) Darkness has replaced fairness as the new standard of beauty
B) Fair beauty has been forgotten completely
C) Only dark colors exist in nature
D) Blackness symbolizes ignorance
Answer: A) Darkness has replaced fairness as the new standard of beauty

6. What does the word “fair” signify in this sonnet?

A) Moral goodness
B) Physical beauty or light complexion
C) Justice and law
D) Honesty
Answer: B) Physical beauty or light complexion

7. The poet criticizes society for—

A) Preferring false, artificial beauty
B) Ignoring true love
C) Valuing wealth over art
D) Being superstitious
Answer: A) Preferring false, artificial beauty

8. The line “Sweet beauty hath no name, no holy bower” means—

A) Beauty is eternal and sacred
B) Beauty no longer has purity or sanctity
C) Beauty lives in temples
D) Beauty is defined by religion
Answer: B) Beauty no longer has purity or sanctity

9. Which literary device is used in comparing beauty and color?

A) Irony
B) Metaphor
C) Personification
D) Alliteration
Answer: B) Metaphor

10. What does the poet mean by “Therefore my mistress’ eyes are raven black”?

A) His beloved’s eyes are dark but beautiful
B) His beloved is angry
C) His beloved’s eyes are lifeless
D) He dislikes his beloved’s appearance
Answer: A) His beloved’s eyes are dark but beautiful

11. How does Shakespeare challenge traditional beauty standards in this sonnet?

A) By praising artificial cosmetics
B) By celebrating dark beauty as natural and true
C) By rejecting love entirely
D) By idealizing fair skin
Answer: B) By celebrating dark beauty as natural and true

12. The poet contrasts “black” with “painted beauty” to highlight—

A) The superiority of natural over artificial beauty
B) The power of money
C) The sadness of aging
D) The role of art in life
Answer: A) The superiority of natural over artificial beauty

13. What tone dominates this sonnet?

A) Angry and rebellious
B) Admiring and reflective
C) Bitter and jealous
D) Humorous and playful
Answer: B) Admiring and reflective

14. Which aspect of the Dark Lady does Shakespeare particularly admire?

A) Her fair complexion
B) Her honesty and natural charm
C) Her wealth
D) Her royal status
Answer: B) Her honesty and natural charm

15. What is the central idea of the sonnet?

A) True beauty lies in sincerity, not in outward fairness
B) Beauty fades with age
C) Love is blind
D) Art can imitate beauty
Answer: A) True beauty lies in sincerity, not in outward fairness

John Donne – “The Sunne Rising” MCQs with Answers for Bihar STET English Paper -ll

1. Who is the poet of “The Sunne Rising”?

A) George Herbert
B) Andrew Marvell
C) John Donne
D) John Milton
Answer: C) John Donne

2. What type of poem is “The Sunne Rising”?

A) Pastoral
B) Metaphysical love poem
C) Epic
D) Sonnet
Answer: B) Metaphysical love poem

3. To whom is the poem addressed?

A) The poet’s friend
B) The rising sun
C) A rival lover
D) The moon
Answer: B) The rising sun

4. What is the tone of the speaker at the beginning of the poem?

A) Playful and teasing
B) Angry and commanding
C) Sad and mournful
D) Humble and gentle
Answer: B) Angry and commanding

5. The poet calls the sun—

A) “Foolish busy old man”
B) “Wise eternal light”
C) “Gentle friend of lovers”
D) “Golden messenger”
Answer: A) “Foolish busy old man”

6. Why does the poet scold the sun?

A) For being too bright
B) For disturbing him and his lover
C) For moving too slowly
D) For hiding behind clouds
Answer: B) For disturbing him and his lover

7. Which poetic device is used in addressing the sun directly?

A) Irony
B) Metaphor
C) Apostrophe
D) Simile
Answer: C) Apostrophe

8. What does the speaker claim about his beloved?

A) She is as radiant as the sun
B) She is more powerful than time
C) She embodies all the world’s wealth and beauty
D) She is cruel and distant
Answer: C) She embodies all the world’s wealth and beauty

9. The poem suggests that the lovers’ room is—

A) A prison
B) A microcosm (miniature world)
C) A dark cave
D) A temple
Answer: B) A microcosm (miniature world)

10. What happens to the tone of the speaker by the end of the poem?

A) It remains angry
B) It changes from irritation to admiration for the sun
C) It turns sad
D) It becomes fearful
Answer: B) It changes from irritation to admiration for the sun

11. The line “She is all states, and all princes, I” means—

A) The lovers represent the entire world
B) They are political rivals
C) They are servants of the king
D) They are dreaming of travel
Answer: A) The lovers represent the entire world

12. Which theme best describes the poem?

A) The power of political rule
B) The conflict between science and religion
C) The supremacy of love over time and space
D) The sadness of separation
Answer: C) The supremacy of love over time and space

13. The poem’s rhythm and style are typical of—

A) Romantic poetry
B) Augustan satire
C) Metaphysical conceits
D) Classical epic
Answer: C) Metaphysical conceits

14. How does Donne use the image of the sun by the end of the poem?

A) As a servant to love
B) As a symbol of death
C) As a destroyer of beauty
D) As a rival to God
Answer: A) As a servant to love

15. What is the overall message of “The Sunne Rising”?

A) True love transcends time, space, and worldly power
B) The sun rules over all human life
C) Lovers must fear the passing of time
D) Nature controls human emotions
Answer: A) True love transcends time, space, and worldly power

Alexander Pope – “The Rape of the Lock” (Canto I, II & III, 1714 Edition) MCQs with Answers | Bihar STET English Paper-ll

1. Who is the poet of “The Rape of the Lock”?

A) John Dryden
B) Alexander Pope
C) Samuel Johnson
D) Jonathan Swift
Answer: B) Alexander Pope

2. “The Rape of the Lock” is best described as a—

A) Tragic epic
B) Mock-epic (heroicomical poem)
C) Pastoral elegy
D) Romantic ode
Answer: B) Mock-epic (heroicomical poem)

3. What real-life incident inspired Pope to write “The Rape of the Lock”?

A) A political quarrel
B) A social scandal involving a lock of hair being cut
C) A duel between two nobles
D) The fall of Queen Anne’s government
Answer: B) A social scandal involving a lock of hair being cut

4. Who requested Pope to write this poem to reconcile the two families involved?

A) Sir Plume
B) John Caryll
C) Lord Petre
D) Belinda herself
Answer: B) John Caryll

5. Who is the heroine of the poem?

A) Thalestris
B) Clarissa
C) Belinda
D) Ariel
Answer: C) Belinda

6. What is the name of Belinda’s guardian sylph?

A) Umbriel
B) Ariel
C) Zephyretta
D) Momentilla
Answer: B) Ariel

7. What warning does Ariel give to Belinda in Canto I?

A) She must avoid visiting the court
B) Some great disaster will happen that day
C) She will fall in love soon
D) Her reputation will be ruined by gossip
Answer: B) Some great disaster will happen that day

8. What does Belinda do after waking up in Canto I?

A) Reads a letter
B) Goes to the church
C) Dresses up and prepares for the day’s outing
D) Writes a poem
Answer: C) Dresses up and prepares for the day’s outing

9. What is the name of Belinda’s lapdog?

A) Fluff
B) Shock
C) Spot
D) Muffin
Answer: B) Shock

10. The description of Belinda’s dressing table in Canto I is an example of—

A) Religious devotion
B) Satire on female vanity
C) Heroic valor
D) Romantic symbolism
Answer: B) Satire on female vanity

11. In Canto II, where does Belinda go with other fashionable ladies and gentlemen?

A) To the court
B) To Hampton Court by boat
C) To a masquerade
D) To the countryside
Answer: B) To Hampton Court by boat

12. Who is the Baron?

A) Belinda’s admirer who cuts the lock
B) A guardian spirit
C) A gossiping courtier
D) A poet in the poem
Answer: A) Belinda’s admirer who cuts the lock

13. What does the Baron do before cutting the lock?

A) Writes a poem
B) Sacrifices his trophies and prays to love gods
C) Seeks Belinda’s permission
D) Fights a duel
Answer: B) Sacrifices his trophies and prays to love gods

14. Which goddess assists the Baron in his plan?

A) Venus
B) Belinda’s guardian
C) Clarissa
D) No goddess helps him directly
Answer: D) No goddess helps him directly

15. Who gives the Baron the scissors?

A) Clarissa
B) Thalestris
C) Shock
D) Ariel
Answer: A) Clarissa

16. In Canto III, where does the main event (the cutting of the lock) occur?

A) During a ball
B) At Hampton Court during a card game
C) In Belinda’s bedroom
D) On the boat
Answer: B) At Hampton Court during a card game

17. What game do the characters play before the lock is cut?

A) Chess
B) Ombre (a card game)
C) Whist
D) Billiards
Answer: B) Ombre (a card game)

18. How does Pope describe the game of Ombre?

A) As a divine miracle
B) In the style of an epic battle
C) As a simple pastime
D) As a foolish activity
Answer: B) In the style of an epic battle

19. What happens to Ariel when he tries to protect Belinda?

A) He fights the Baron
B) He is forced to withdraw after seeing an earthly passion in Belinda’s heart
C) He turns into a mortal
D) He vanishes with the lock
Answer: B) He is forced to withdraw after seeing an earthly passion in Belinda’s heart

20. What is the tone of “The Rape of the Lock”?

A) Tragic
B) Comic and satirical
C) Angry and rebellious
D) Romantic and melancholic
Answer: B) Comic and satirical

William Blake – “The Lamb” and “The Tyger” MCQ for Bihar STET (English Paper-ll)

1. In which collection of poems does “The Lamb” appear?

A) Songs of Experience
B) Songs of Innocence
C) The Marriage of Heaven and Hell
D) Poetical Sketches
Answer: B) Songs of Innocence

2. What is the central theme of “The Lamb”?

A) Industrial progress
B) Innocence and divine creation
C) Human corruption
D) Political revolution
Answer: B) Innocence and divine creation

3. Who is the speaker addressing in “The Lamb”?

A) God
B) A child
C) A lamb
D) A shepherd
Answer: C) A lamb

4. What quality of God does the lamb symbolize in the poem?

A) Justice
B) Wrath
C) Purity and gentleness
D) Power and destruction
Answer: C) Purity and gentleness

5. Which line from “The Lamb” directly refers to Jesus Christ?

A) “He is meek and he is mild”
B) “Did he who made the Lamb make thee?”
C) “Tyger Tyger, burning bright”
D) “What immortal hand or eye”
Answer: A) “He is meek and he is mild”

6. “The Tyger” belongs to which of Blake’s collections?

A) Songs of Innocence
B) Songs of Experience
C) The Book of Urizen
D) Jerusalem
Answer: B) Songs of Experience

7. What does the tiger symbolize in “The Tyger”?

A) Fear and darkness only
B) Industrial revolution
C) The fierce and powerful aspects of creation
D) Corruption of the Church
Answer: C) The fierce and powerful aspects of creation

8. Which poetic device is used in the line “Tyger Tyger, burning bright”?

A) Simile
B) Metaphor
C) Alliteration
D) Hyperbole
Answer: C) Alliteration

9. What question does Blake repeatedly ask in “The Tyger”?

A) Who gave you life?
B) Why are you feared?
C) Did the same creator make both innocence and ferocity?
D) Who tamed you?
Answer: C) Did the same creator make both innocence and ferocity?

10. How are “The Lamb” and “The Tyger” related thematically?

A) Both praise human intellect
B) Both contrast innocence and experience in God’s creation
C) Both condemn industrialization
D) Both describe natural disasters
Answer: B) Both contrast innocence and experience in God’s creation

11. What emotion dominates “The Tyger”?

A) Anger
B) Awe and wonder
C) Sadness
D) Indifference
Answer: B) Awe and wonder

12. What does the imagery of “fire” in “The Tyger” represent?

A) Love
B) Creation and energy
C) Destruction only
D) Innocence
Answer: B) Creation and energy

13. Which form best describes “The Lamb”?

A) Sonnet
B) Dramatic monologue
C) Pastoral lyric
D) Epic poem
Answer: C) Pastoral lyric

14. In “The Tyger”, the phrase “fearful symmetry” suggests—

A) The beauty and danger in creation
B) The peaceful nature of animals
C) The randomness of life
D) The corruption of mankind
Answer: A) The beauty and danger in creation

15. What do the two poems together reveal about Blake’s view of God?

A) God is cruel and distant
B) God is both gentle and powerful
C) God is only loving
D) God does not exist
Answer: B) God is both gentle and powerful

John Keats – “Ode on a Grecian Urn” MCQs with Answers for Bihar STET English Paper ll

1. Who is the poet of “Ode on a Grecian Urn”?

A) Percy Bysshe Shelley
B) John Keats
C) William Wordsworth
D) Lord Byron
Answer: B) John Keats

2. “Ode on a Grecian Urn” was written in which year?

A) 1817
B) 1818
C) 1819
D) 1820
Answer: C) 1819

3. What type of poem is “Ode on a Grecian Urn”?

A) Epic
B) Lyric
C) Pastoral
D) Dramatic monologue
Answer: B) Lyric

4. The poem is addressed to whom or what?

A) A Greek poet
B) A marble statue
C) A painted urn
D) The goddess of beauty
Answer: C) A painted urn

5. Which of the following is the central theme of the poem?

A) Love of nature
B) The contrast between art and life
C) The glory of war
D) The pain of separation
Answer: B) The contrast between art and life

6. The urn in the poem is described as—

A) “A silent form”
B) “A wild spirit”
C) “A dreadful shape”
D) “A living thing”
Answer: A) “A silent form”

7. The phrase “Heard melodies are sweet, but those unheard are sweeter” suggests—

A) Imagination is more powerful than reality
B) Silence is meaningless
C) Music is superior to poetry
D) Nature is eternal
Answer: A) Imagination is more powerful than reality

8. What does the urn symbolize in the poem?

A) Death and decay
B) Eternal beauty and art
C) Human suffering
D) Religious devotion
Answer: B) Eternal beauty and art

9. What does the poet envy about the figures on the urn?

A) Their silence
B) Their unchanging perfection
C) Their sorrow
D) Their wisdom
Answer: B) Their unchanging perfection

10. What is the famous concluding line of the poem?

A) “Truth is beauty, beauty truth,—that is all”
B) “A thing of beauty is a joy forever”
C) “Season of mists and mellow fruitfulness”
D) “Heard melodies are sweet”
Answer: A) “Truth is beauty, beauty truth,—that is all”

11. In the poem, the urn is called a—

A) “Historian who canst express”
B) “Muse of modern art”
C) “Child of silence”
D) “Messenger of gods”
Answer: A) “Historian who canst express”

12. What emotion dominates the poem?

A) Anger
B) Joy
C) Wonder and admiration
D) Confusion
Answer: C) Wonder and admiration

13. What does the frozen moment on the urn represent?

A) The passage of time
B) Eternal stillness beyond death
C) Human despair
D) Fleeting pleasure
Answer: B) Eternal stillness beyond death

14. Which poetic device is heavily used throughout the poem?

A) Personification
B) Irony
C) Paradox
D) Satire
Answer: A) Personification

15. What philosophical idea is expressed through the urn’s silence?

A) Art speaks through timelessness, not words
B) Silence means ignorance
C) Art cannot express emotion
D) Art should be realistic
Answer: A) Art speaks through timelessness, not words

W.B. Yeats – “The Second Coming” and “Sailing to Byzantium” MCQs with Answers

1. Who is the poet of “The Second Coming” and “Sailing to Byzantium”?

A) T.S. Eliot
B) W.B. Yeats
C) W.H. Auden
D) Ezra Pound
Answer: B) W.B. Yeats

2. In which year was “The Second Coming” written?

A) 1915
B) 1919
C) 1921
D) 1923
Answer: B) 1919

3. What historical event influenced “The Second Coming”?

A) The Industrial Revolution
B) World War I
C) The Irish Rebellion
D) The Russian Revolution
Answer: B) World War I

4. The line “Things fall apart; the centre cannot hold” suggests—

A) Order and stability
B) Chaos and collapse of civilization
C) Natural balance
D) Hope for renewal
Answer: B) Chaos and collapse of civilization

5. What does the “rough beast” symbolize in “The Second Coming”?

A) Christ’s rebirth
B) Political corruption
C) A monstrous new age of violence
D) The fall of religion
Answer: C) A monstrous new age of violence

6. What poetic form does “The Second Coming” follow?

A) Sonnet
B) Blank verse
C) Free verse
D) Ballad
Answer: C) Free verse

7. The image of the “widening gyre” in “The Second Coming” represents—

A) The cycles of history and time
B) Human progress
C) Natural beauty
D) Religious salvation
Answer: A) The cycles of history and time

8. Which of the following best expresses the tone of “The Second Coming”?

A) Calm and peaceful
B) Fearful and prophetic
C) Joyful and romantic
D) Humorous and light
Answer: B) Fearful and prophetic

9. What is the central theme of “The Second Coming”?

A) Political unity
B) Decline of modern civilization and the birth of a new age
C) The beauty of nature
D) Romantic love
Answer: B) Decline of modern civilization and the birth of a new age

10. The phrase “Spiritus Mundi” in “The Second Coming” refers to—

A) The Holy Spirit
B) The collective spirit or imagination of humanity
C) A personal muse
D) The end of the world
Answer: B) The collective spirit or imagination of humanity

11. In “Sailing to Byzantium,” what does the poet seek?

A) Eternal youth
B) Spiritual and artistic immortality
C) Material success
D) Romantic love
Answer: B) Spiritual and artistic immortality

12. What does Byzantium symbolize in the poem?

A) A real city in Greece
B) A land of wealth and power
C) A world of eternal art and spirit
D) A place of political corruption
Answer: C) A world of eternal art and spirit

13. What is meant by “That is no country for old men” in the opening line?

A) The modern world neglects wisdom and spirituality
B) Old men are forbidden to travel
C) The poet dislikes his homeland
D) Nature has vanished
Answer: A) The modern world neglects wisdom and spirituality

14. The phrase “artifice of eternity” refers to—

A) Human inventions
B) Works of art that outlast human life
C) The illusion of beauty
D) Artificial intelligence
Answer: B) Works of art that outlast human life

15. What transformation does the speaker wish for in “Sailing to Byzantium”?

A) To become a tree
B) To become a golden bird
C) To become a god
D) To become a statue
Answer: B) To become a golden bird

16. Which theme connects both “The Second Coming” and “Sailing to Byzantium”?

A) Celebration of nature
B) The conflict between the spiritual and the material world
C) The joy of youth
D) The power of politics
Answer: B) The conflict between the spiritual and the material world

17. The tone of “Sailing to Byzantium” is mainly—

A) Joyful and playful
B) Reflective and spiritual
C) Angry and bitter
D) Humorous and light
Answer: B) Reflective and spiritual

18. Both poems reflect Yeats’s interest in—

A) Irish folklore
B) Historical cycles and spiritual transcendence
C) Romantic love and beauty
D) Nature worship
Answer: B) Historical cycles and spiritual transcendence

T.S. Eliot – “The Hollow Men” MCQs with Answers | Bihar STET English Paper 2

1. Who wrote the poem “The Hollow Men”?

A) W.B. Yeats
B) T.S. Eliot
C) Ezra Pound
D) W.H. Auden
Answer: B) T.S. Eliot

2. In which year was “The Hollow Men” first published?

A) 1919
B) 1925
C) 1928
D) 1930
Answer: B) 1925

3. The poem “The Hollow Men” is often considered a companion to which earlier work by Eliot?

A) The Love Song of J. Alfred Prufrock
B) The Waste Land
C) Gerontion
D) Ash Wednesday
Answer: B) The Waste Land

4. The epigraph “Mistah Kurtz—he dead” refers to which literary work?

A) Heart of Darkness by Joseph Conrad
B) Ulysses by James Joyce
C) Paradise Lost by Milton
D) A Portrait of the Artist as a Young Man by Joyce
Answer: A) Heart of Darkness by Joseph Conrad

5. The Hollow Men are described as being—

A) Brave and hopeful
B) Empty and powerless
C) Wise and heroic
D) Loving and compassionate
Answer: B) Empty and powerless

6. What does the word “hollow” symbolize in the poem?

A) Material wealth
B) Spiritual emptiness and moral decay
C) Intellectual superiority
D) Natural beauty
Answer: B) Spiritual emptiness and moral decay

7. The line “Shape without form, shade without colour” represents—

A) The physical beauty of nature
B) The formlessness of modern humanity
C) A description of heaven
D) Religious transformation
Answer: B) The formlessness of modern humanity

8. What biblical reference appears in the poem?

A) The Flood
B) The Lord’s Prayer
C) The Ten Commandments
D) The story of Adam and Eve
Answer: B) The Lord’s Prayer

9. What kind of tone dominates “The Hollow Men”?

A) Joyful and triumphant
B) Dark, despairing, and fragmented
C) Romantic and lyrical
D) Satirical and humorous
Answer: B) Dark, despairing, and fragmented

10. The “eyes” in the poem symbolize—

A) The stars in the sky
B) Hope, salvation, and spiritual vision
C) Worldly temptations
D) The eyes of the dead soldiers
Answer: B) Hope, salvation, and spiritual vision

11. What does the setting of the poem mainly represent?

A) A battlefield
B) A dreamlike wasteland or purgatorial state
C) A temple of worship
D) A busy city street
Answer: B) A dreamlike wasteland or purgatorial state

12. What does the repetition of the phrase “This is the way the world ends” emphasize?

A) The end of a civilization
B) The futility and anti-climactic end of humanity
C) A hopeful new beginning
D) The victory of faith
Answer: B) The futility and anti-climactic end of humanity

13. What famous concluding line ends the poem?

A) “Not with a shout but with a song.”
B) “Not with a dream but with a prayer.”
C) “Not with a bang but a whimper.”
D) “Not with hope but with despair.”
Answer: C) “Not with a bang but a whimper.”

14. The “stuffed men” in the poem can be interpreted as—

A) Spiritual hypocrites filled with false values
B) Artists and thinkers
C) Angels of mercy
D) Soldiers and politicians
Answer: A) Spiritual hypocrites filled with false values

15. Which modernist characteristics are evident in “The Hollow Men”?

A) Mythic structure and stream of consciousness
B) Fragmentation, irony, and religious allusion
C) Romantic imagery and idealism
D) Classical unity and rhyme
Answer: B) Fragmentation, irony, and religious allusion

16. Which phrase in the poem indicates paralysis and inaction?

A) “The eyes reappear”
B) “Between the motion and the act”
C) “The world ends”
D) “Headpiece filled with straw”
Answer: B) “Between the motion and the act”

17. What emotion dominates the Hollow Men’s existence?

A) Love
B) Fear
C) Joy
D) Anger
Answer: B) Fear

18. What is the poem’s overall message about modern humanity?

A) It is morally strong but physically weak
B) It has lost faith, purpose, and spiritual depth
C) It is on the verge of redemption
D) It is moving toward enlightenment
Answer: B) It has lost faith, purpose, and spiritual depth

19. Which religion or philosophy heavily influences “The Hollow Men”?

A) Paganism
B) Buddhism and Christianity
C) Islam
D) Greek mythology
Answer: B) Buddhism and Christianity

20. What poetic technique does Eliot use extensively in “The Hollow Men”?

A) Extended metaphor and satire
B) Imagery, repetition, and allusion
C) Pastoral description
D) Narrative dialogue
Answer: B) Imagery, repetition, and allusion

Seamus Heaney – “Punishment” MCQs with Answers | Bihar STET English Paper 2

1. Who is the poet of “Punishment”?

A) Ted Hughes
B) W.B. Yeats
C) Seamus Heaney
D) Sylvia Plath
Answer: C) Seamus Heaney

2. The poem “Punishment” is part of which poetry collection by Heaney?

A) Death of a Naturalist
B) North
C) Wintering Out
D) Field Work
Answer: B) North

3. In which year was “Punishment” published?

A) 1966
B) 1972
C) 1975
D) 1980
Answer: C) 1975

4. What historical discovery inspired the poem “Punishment”?

A) Ancient Irish manuscripts
B) A bog body found in Denmark
C) A Viking ship burial
D) An old Irish castle ruin
Answer: B) A bog body found in Denmark

5. The poem is based on the preserved body of—

A) A young soldier
B) A drowned child
C) A woman punished for adultery
D) A Celtic queen
Answer: C) A woman punished for adultery

6. How was the woman in “Punishment” executed according to the poem?

A) Burned at the stake
B) Buried alive
C) Drowned and buried in a bog
D) Beheaded
Answer: C) Drowned and buried in a bog

7. The bog body in the poem is often linked to which real archaeological find?

A) The Tollund Man
B) The Grauballe Man
C) The Windeby Girl
D) The Lindow Man
Answer: C) The Windeby Girl

8. What feeling dominates the poet’s tone throughout the poem?

A) Anger
B) Compassion mixed with guilt
C) Indifference
D) Triumph and joy
Answer: B) Compassion mixed with guilt

9. What does the poet compare the girl’s body to in the poem?

A) A small bird
B) A withered tree
C) A statue
D) A piece of ancient jewelry
Answer: A) A small bird

10. Which recurring symbol in Heaney’s poetry represents memory and history?

A) The sea
B) The bog
C) The mountain
D) The fire
Answer: B) The bog

11. The poet draws a parallel between the bog girl and—

A) Victims of the Irish Troubles
B) Ancient Roman women
C) World War soldiers
D) Irish mythological figures
Answer: A) Victims of the Irish Troubles

12. What does Heaney mean by the term “tribal, intimate revenge”?

A) The revenge taken by primitive societies against traitors
B) A political movement
C) A form of divine justice
D) A punishment given by the government
Answer: A) The revenge taken by primitive societies against traitors

13. Which emotion does Heaney confess feeling as a modern observer?

A) Pride
B) Hatred
C) Shame for being silent
D) Happiness
Answer: C) Shame for being silent

14. The phrase “I almost love you” in the poem expresses—

A) Romantic affection
B) The poet’s moral conflict between empathy and complicity
C) Hatred for the woman
D) Nostalgia for the past
Answer: B) The poet’s moral conflict between empathy and complicity

15. What is the central theme of “Punishment”?

A) The beauty of nature
B) The relationship between violence, guilt, and history
C) Romantic love and loss
D) Irish mythology
Answer: B) The relationship between violence, guilt, and history

16. How does Heaney connect past and present violence in the poem?

A) By describing modern warfare
B) By comparing the ancient punishment to the treatment of women during the Irish conflict
C) By quoting historical documents
D) By romanticizing the past
Answer: B) By comparing the ancient punishment to the treatment of women during the Irish conflict

17. Which poetic device is most dominant in “Punishment”?

A) Irony
B) Personification
C) Imagery and symbolism
D) Hyperbole
Answer: C) Imagery and symbolism

18. What does the bog symbolize in Heaney’s poetry?

A) Death and decay only
B) A living archive that preserves history and memory
C) The future of Ireland
D) An escape from politics
Answer: B) A living archive that preserves history and memory

19. What is the tone of the poem’s ending?

A) Hopeful and forgiving
B) Cold and detached
C) Reflective and remorseful
D) Victorious and proud
Answer: C) Reflective and remorseful

20. “Punishment” is a fine example of—

A) Romantic idealism
B) Political symbolism and moral self-examination
C) Abstract surrealism
D) Nature poetry
Answer: B) Political symbolism and moral self-examination

1.2 British Drama

MCQ on History of British Drama and the following plays:

a. Christopher Marlowe- “Doctor Faustus” | Full Text | Summary | Video

b. Shakespeare- “Macbeth”

c. Aphra Behn- “The Rover”

d. William Congreve- “Love for Love”

e. Oscar Wilde- “The Importance of Being Earnest”

f. G.B. Shaw- “Candida”

g. John Galsworthy- “Justice”

h. T.S. Eliot- “Murder in the Cathedral”

i. John Osborne- “Look Back in Anger”

j. Samuel Beckett- “Waiting for Godot” | Full Text | Summary | Video

Christopher Marlowe – “Doctor Faustus” MCQs with Answers for Bihar STET English Paper 2

1. Who is the author of “Doctor Faustus”?

A) William Shakespeare
B) Ben Jonson
C) Christopher Marlowe
D) Thomas Kyd
Answer: C) Christopher Marlowe

2. What is the full title of the play?

A) The Life and Death of Doctor Faustus
B) The Tragic History of Doctor Faustus
C) Doctor Faustus: A German Tragedy
D) The Story of Faustus
Answer: B) The Tragic History of Doctor Faustus

3. In which year was Doctor Faustus first published?

A) 1590
B) 1604
C) 1616
D) 1623
Answer: B) 1604

4. Doctor Faustus is based on—

A) A Greek legend
B) An English ballad
C) A German legend of a scholar who sold his soul
D) A Roman myth
Answer: C) A German legend of a scholar who sold his soul

5. What is the main theme of Doctor Faustus?

A) Political power
B) The conflict between good and evil within man
C) Romantic love
D) Adventure and discovery
Answer: B) The conflict between good and evil within man

6. What subject does Faustus decide to study at the beginning of the play?

A) Philosophy
B) Magic and necromancy
C) Medicine
D) Law
Answer: B) Magic and necromancy

7. Who are the two supernatural beings that influence Faustus?

A) Lucifer and Michael
B) Mephistophilis and the Good Angel
C) Mephistophilis and Lucifer
D) Beelzebub and Satan
Answer: C) Mephistophilis and Lucifer

8. What does Faustus offer in exchange for Mephistophilis’s service?

A) His body
B) His soul
C) His fortune
D) His kingdom
Answer: B) His soul

9. How long is Mephistophilis bound to serve Faustus?

A) 7 years
B) 12 years
C) 24 years
D) Forever
Answer: C) 24 years

10. What does Faustus sign the contract with?

A) Ink
B) Blood
C) Gold
D) Holy water
Answer: B) Blood

11. What warning does the inscription “Homo, fuge!” give Faustus?

A) Man, flee!
B) Man, believe!
C) Man, fight!
D) Man, repent!
Answer: A) Man, flee!

12. Who tries to persuade Faustus to repent throughout the play?

A) Mephistophilis
B) The Pope
C) The Good Angel and the Old Man
D) The Scholars
Answer: C) The Good Angel and the Old Man

13. What is Mephistophilis’s warning about hell?

A) It does not exist
B) It is a metaphor
C) It is real and omnipresent
D) It can be escaped through repentance
Answer: C) It is real and omnipresent

14. Which famous figures does Faustus conjure up to impress others?

A) Aristotle and Socrates
B) Alexander the Great and Helen of Troy
C) Julius Caesar and Cleopatra
D) Solomon and the Queen of Sheba
Answer: B) Alexander the Great and Helen of Troy

15. The line “Was this the face that launched a thousand ships?” refers to—

A) Dido
B) Cleopatra
C) Helen of Troy
D) Venus
Answer: C) Helen of Troy

16. Who is the ruler of Hell in the play?

A) Mephistophilis
B) Lucifer
C) Beelzebub
D) Satan
Answer: B) Lucifer

17. What is Faustus’s final wish before he dies?

A) To repent and be forgiven
B) To have more knowledge
C) To live another 24 years
D) To see heaven
Answer: A) To repent and be forgiven

18. What happens to Faustus at the end of the play?

A) He is saved by angels
B) He ascends to heaven
C) He is dragged away by devils to hell
D) He disappears mysteriously
Answer: C) He is dragged away by devils to hell

19. What moral lesson does Doctor Faustus convey?

A) Ambition leads to success
B) Knowledge is dangerous
C) Excessive pride and desire for power lead to downfall
D) Evil is stronger than good
Answer: C) Excessive pride and desire for power lead to downfall

20. Which literary period does Doctor Faustus belong to?

A) Romantic
B) Medieval
C) Elizabethan
D) Modern
Answer: C) Elizabethan

William Shakespeare – “Macbeth” MCQs with Answers | Bihar STET English Paper-2

1. Who is the author of Macbeth?

A) Christopher Marlowe
B) William Shakespeare
C) Ben Jonson
D) John Milton
Answer: B) William Shakespeare

2. Macbeth is classified as a—

A) Comedy
B) History play
C) Tragedy
D) Romance
Answer: C) Tragedy

3. Who is the first character to appear on stage in the play?

A) Macbeth
B) Banquo
C) The Three Witches
D) Lady Macbeth
Answer: C) The Three Witches

4. What prophecy do the witches give Macbeth in Act 1?

A) He will become king of Scotland
B) He will rule England
C) He will be wealthy and powerful
D) He will die in battle
Answer: A) He will become king of Scotland

5. Who is King of Scotland at the start of the play?

A) Malcolm
B) Duncan
C) Macbeth
D) Banquo
Answer: B) Duncan

6. Who is Macbeth’s closest friend and comrade in battle?

A) Banquo
B) Macduff
C) Ross
D) Lennox
Answer: A) Banquo

7. Who encourages Macbeth to murder King Duncan?

A) Lady Macbeth
B) The witches
C) Banquo
D) Macduff
Answer: A) Lady Macbeth

8. What is the significance of the dagger scene in Act 2?

A) Macbeth’s bravery
B) Macbeth’s hallucination and moral hesitation before Duncan’s murder
C) Lady Macbeth’s guilt
D) Banquo’s loyalty
Answer: B) Macbeth’s hallucination and moral hesitation before Duncan’s murder

9. How does Lady Macbeth react after Duncan’s murder?

A) She flees Scotland
B) She feels guilty and begins sleepwalking
C) She laughs triumphantly
D) She blames the witches
Answer: B) She feels guilty and begins sleepwalking

10. What vision haunts Macbeth at Banquo’s feast?

A) A bloody sword
B) Banquo’s ghost
C) The witches
D) Duncan’s spirit
Answer: B) Banquo’s ghost

11. What prophecy do the witches give Banquo?

A) His sons will inherit the Scottish throne
B) He will become king himself
C) He will die in battle
D) He will betray Macbeth
Answer: A) His sons will inherit the Scottish throne

12. Who kills Macbeth at the end of the play?

A) Malcolm
B) Macduff
C) Banquo
D) Lady Macbeth
Answer: B) Macduff

13. How is Lady Macbeth’s death described in the play?

A) She dies in battle
B) She dies off-stage, likely by suicide
C) She is executed
D) She survives and rules Scotland
Answer: B) She dies off-stage, likely by suicide

14. What role do the witches play in the play?

A) They provide comic relief
B) They represent fate and temptation
C) They are loyal allies of Macbeth
D) They rule Scotland
Answer: B) They represent fate and temptation

15. What theme is central to Macbeth?

A) Love and friendship
B) Ambition, power, and guilt
C) Nature and pastoral life
D) Justice and law
Answer: B) Ambition, power, and guilt

16. What does “fair is foul, and foul is fair” signify?

A) Nature’s harmony
B) Appearance versus reality; moral confusion
C) Justice will prevail
D) Macbeth’s bravery
Answer: B) Appearance versus reality; moral confusion

17. What does Macbeth use to justify Banquo’s murder?

A) The witches’ prophecy
B) Banquo’s threat to his crown
C) Lady Macbeth’s advice
D) Both A and B
Answer: D) Both A and B

18. How does Macduff differ from Macbeth?

A) He is ambitious and ruthless
B) He is loyal, moral, and seeks justice
C) He is cowardly
D) He allies with the witches
Answer: B) He is loyal, moral, and seeks justice

19. What does the moving forest symbolize in the play?

A) Nature’s rebellion against tyranny
B) A literal forest marching
C) Macbeth’s fear of betrayal
D) Lady Macbeth’s ambition
Answer: A) Nature’s rebellion against tyranny

20. Which literary device is heavily used in Macbeth?

A) Hyperbole
B) Soliloquy
C) Pastoral imagery
D) Allegory
Answer: B) Soliloquy

1.3 British Prose & Fiction

History of Prose and Fiction and the following texts:

a. Daniel Defoe - “Robinson Crusoe” Pub. 1719

b. Jane Austen- “Pride and Prejudice” Pub. 1813

c. Charles Dickens- “A Tale of Two Cities” Pub. 1859

d. Emily Bronte- “Wuthering Heights”

e. George Eliot- “Silas Mariner”

f. Thomas Hardy- “The Mayor of Casterbridge”

g. D H Lawrence’s short stories – “The Fox” and “The White Stocking”

h. Francis Bacon’s essay- “Of Studies”

i. E. M Forster’s essay- “What I Believe”

j. A.G. Gardiner’s essay- “On Saying Please”

MCQs on Daniel Defoe's - “Robinson Crusoe”

1. Who wrote Robinson Crusoe?

A) Jonathan Swift

B) Daniel Defoe

C) Samuel Richardson

D) Henry Fielding

Answer: B) Daniel Defoe

Who is believed to be the real-life inspiration for Daniel Defoe’s Robinson Crusoe?

A) Captain Cook
B) Alexander Selkirk
C) Christopher Columbus
D) Sir Francis Drake
Answer: B) Alexander Selkirk

2. When was Robinson Crusoe first published?

A) 1719

B) 1726

C) 1705

D) 1732

Answer: A) 1719

3. What is the full title of Robinson Crusoe?

A) *The Life and Strange Surprizing Adventures of Robinson Crusoe*

B) *The Adventures of a Shipwrecked Sailor*

C) *Crusoe: A Life of Survival*

D) *The Tale of a Castaway*

Answer: A) 'The Life and Strange Surprizing Adventures of Robinson Crusoe'

4. What was Robinson Crusoe’s main desire in his youth?

A) To become a priest

B) To travel the sea

C) To be a farmer

D) To become a soldier

**Answer:** B) To travel the sea

5. Where was Robinson Crusoe born?

A) Bristol

B) London

C) York

D) Dublin

**Answer:** C) York

6. Why was Crusoe shipwrecked?

A) Because of pirates

B) Because of a storm

C) Because the ship caught fire

D) Because of navigation error

**Answer:** B) Because of a storm

7. How long did Crusoe live on the deserted island?

A) 10 years

B) 15 years

C) 28 years

D) 20 years

**Answer:** C) 28 years

8. What was the name of the native man Crusoe rescued?

A) Friday

B) Monday

C) Sunday

D) Saturday

**Answer:** A) Friday

9. How did Crusoe meet Friday?

A) He was shipwrecked together with him

B) Crusoe rescued him from cannibals

C) Friday helped Crusoe escape

D) He found him in a cave

**Answer:** B) Crusoe rescued him from cannibals

10. What religion did Crusoe teach Friday?

A) Islam

B) Christianity

C) Judaism

D) Buddhism

**Answer:** B) Christianity

11. Which of the following did Crusoe NOT use for food?

A) Goats

B) Turtles

C) Corn

D) Fish

**Answer:** C) Corn

12. Why did Crusoe keep a journal?

A) To document his feelings

B) To record events for memory

C) To write a novel later

D) To prove his sanity

**Answer:** B) To record events for memory

13. Which theme is central to Robinson Crusoe?

A) Revenge and jealousy

B) Isolation and survival

C) Political corruption

D) Love and betrayal

**Answer:** B) Isolation and survival

14. Where was Crusoe’s first sea voyage headed?

A) Africa

B) America

C) India

D) Brazil

**Answer:** A) Africa

15. What does the single footprint in the sand symbolize?

A) Hope

B) Fear of the unknown

C) Discovery of Friday

D) Crusoe’s hallucination

**Answer:** B) Fear of the unknown

16. How does Crusoe’s faith evolve throughout the novel?

A) He loses faith entirely

B) He becomes more spiritual and repentant

C) He turns atheist

D) He never changes spiritually

**Answer:** B) He becomes more spiritual and repentant

17. What genre best describes Robinson Crusoe?

A) Historical fiction

B) Travel narrative and adventure fiction

C) Romantic fiction

D) Gothic novel

**Answer:** B) Travel narrative and adventure fiction

18. How did Crusoe finally escape the island?

A) A passing ship rescued him

B) He built a raft and sailed away

C) He was rescued by Friday’s tribe

D) He died on the island

**Answer:** A) A passing ship rescued him

19. Which of the following is a key feature of Defoe’s style in Robinson Crusoe?

A) Use of fantasy and myth

B) Realism and detailed description

C) Poetic imagery

D) Satirical tone

**Answer:** B) Realism and detailed description

20. What is the moral lesson of Robinson Crusoe?

A) Wealth leads to happiness

B) Dependence on others is strength

C) Faith, hard work, and self-reliance lead to success

D) Life at sea is always rewarding

**Answer:** C) Faith, hard work, and self-reliance lead to success

MCQs on Charles Dickens – “A Tale of Two Cities” for Bihar STET English Paper 2

1. Who is the author of A Tale of Two Cities?

A) Thomas Hardy
B) Charles Dickens
C) George Eliot
D) Jane Austen
Answer: B) Charles Dickens

2. In which year was A Tale of Two Cities first published?

A) 1845
B) 1859
C) 1865
D) 1871
Answer: B) 1859

3. What are the two cities referred to in the title?

A) London and Berlin
B) London and Paris
C) Paris and Rome
D) London and New York
Answer: B) London and Paris

4. What historical event forms the backdrop of the novel?

A) The American Revolution
B) The English Civil War
C) The French Revolution
D) The Industrial Revolution
Answer: C) The French Revolution

5. Who is the protagonist of A Tale of Two Cities?

A) Sydney Carton
B) Charles Darnay
C) Dr. Manette
D) Lucie Manette
Answer: B) Charles Darnay

6. What is the famous opening line of the novel?

A) “It was a dark and stormy night.”
B) “All happy families are alike.”
C) “It was the best of times, it was the worst of times.”
D) “Call me Ishmael.”
Answer: C) “It was the best of times, it was the worst of times.”

7. What is Dr. Manette’s profession?

A) Lawyer
B) Banker
C) Physician
D) Blacksmith
Answer: C) Physician

8. Where was Dr. Manette imprisoned for 18 years?

A) The Bastille
B) The Tower of London
C) Newgate Prison
D) La Force Prison
Answer: A) The Bastille

9. Who is Lucie Manette’s husband?

A) Sydney Carton
B) Charles Darnay
C) Roger Cly
D) Ernest Defarge
Answer: B) Charles Darnay

10. What relationship exists between Sydney Carton and Charles Darnay?

A) Brothers
B) Rivals and look-alikes
C) Friends since childhood
D) Cousins
Answer: B) Rivals and look-alikes

11. What sacrifice does Sydney Carton make at the end of the novel?

A) He gives up his fortune
B) He dies in Darnay’s place
C) He leaves London forever
D) He joins the revolution
Answer: B) He dies in Darnay’s place

12. Who is Madame Defarge?

A) Dr. Manette’s nurse
B) A noblewoman
C) A revolutionary leader
D) Lucie’s servant
Answer: C) A revolutionary leader

13. What does Madame Defarge frequently do to record names of enemies?

A) Writes letters
B) Knits
C) Draws sketches
D) Keeps a diary
Answer: B) Knits

14. What is the theme most emphasized in the novel?

A) Love and sacrifice
B) Adventure and travel
C) Politics and law
D) Education and growth
Answer: A) Love and sacrifice

15. Who helps Dr. Manette after his release from prison?

A) Jarvis Lorry
B) Sydney Carton
C) Charles Darnay
D) Mr. Cruncher
Answer: A) Jarvis Lorry

16. Which social class does Charles Darnay belong to by birth?

A) Peasantry
B) Bourgeoisie
C) Nobility
D) Clergy
Answer: C) Nobility

17. What is the name of the cruel aristocratic family connected to Darnay?

A) The Evremonde family
B) The Defarge family
C) The Carton family
D) The Manette family
Answer: A) The Evremonde family

18. Who delivers the famous final speech: “It is a far, far better thing that I do…”?

A) Dr. Manette
B) Charles Darnay
C) Sydney Carton
D) Mr. Lorry
Answer: C) Sydney Carton

19. Which literary genre best describes A Tale of Two Cities?

A) Tragedy and historical fiction
B) Comedy and romance
C) Mystery and adventure
D) Satire and parody
Answer: A) Tragedy and historical fiction

20. What moral lesson does the novel ultimately convey?

A) Wealth brings happiness
B) Sacrifice and redemption conquer hatred
C) Revenge ensures justice
D) Love is meaningless in war
Answer: B) Sacrifice and redemption conquer hatred

Q: Who is the author of *Silas Marner*?

A) Charles Dickens

B) George Eliot

C) Thomas Hardy

D) Jane Austen
Answer: B) George Eliot

Q: *Pride and Prejudice* was written by:
A) Charlotte Brontë

B) Jane Austen

C) Emily Brontë

D) Mary Shelley
Answer: B) Jane Austen

📚 MCQs on Emily Brontë – “Wuthering Heights”

1. Who is the author of Wuthering Heights?

A) Charlotte Brontë
B) Emily Brontë
C) Anne Brontë
D) Jane Austen
Answer: B) Emily Brontë

2. In which year was Wuthering Heights first published?

A) 1837
B) 1847
C) 1852
D) 1857
Answer: B) 1847

3. Under what pseudonym was Wuthering Heights originally published?

A) Ellis Bell
B) Currer Bell
C) Acton Bell
D) George Eliot
Answer: A) Ellis Bell

4. What are the names of the two houses central to the novel?

A) Wuthering Heights and Thrushcross Grange
B) Thornfield Hall and Gateshead
C) Mansfield Park and Norland
D) Green Gables and Pemberley
Answer: A) Wuthering Heights and Thrushcross Grange

5. Who is the narrator at the beginning of the novel?

A) Nelly Dean
B) Mr. Lockwood
C) Heathcliff
D) Catherine Earnshaw
Answer: B) Mr. Lockwood

6. Who recounts most of the story to Mr. Lockwood?

A) Hindley Earnshaw
B) Nelly Dean
C) Joseph
D) Isabella Linton
Answer: B) Nelly Dean

7. Who is Heathcliff?

A) Catherine’s cousin
B) An orphan adopted by Mr. Earnshaw
C) A servant at Thrushcross Grange
D) A tenant farmer
Answer: B) An orphan adopted by Mr. Earnshaw

8. What is the name of Catherine Earnshaw’s husband?

A) Heathcliff
B) Edgar Linton
C) Hareton Earnshaw
D) Joseph
Answer: B) Edgar Linton

9. Who is Hindley Earnshaw?

A) Catherine’s brother
B) Catherine’s cousin
C) Catherine’s uncle
D) Catherine’s servant
Answer: A) Catherine’s brother

10. Why does Heathcliff leave Wuthering Heights after overhearing Catherine?

A) She insults his appearance and social status
B) She refuses to marry him openly
C) She marries Edgar secretly
D) He is banished by Hindley
Answer: A) She insults his appearance and social status

11. What happens to Catherine after her marriage to Edgar Linton?

A) She becomes very happy
B) She dies after falling ill
C) She leaves with Heathcliff
D) She goes abroad
Answer: B) She dies after falling ill

12. What does Heathcliff do after Catherine’s death?

A) He leaves the country
B) He becomes gentle and forgiving
C) He seeks revenge on Hindley and Edgar
D) He remarries
Answer: C) He seeks revenge on Hindley and Edgar

13. Who is Hareton Earnshaw?

A) Hindley’s son
B) Heathcliff’s son
C) Edgar’s brother
D) Nelly’s nephew
Answer: A) Hindley’s son

14. Who is Linton Heathcliff?

A) Heathcliff’s son with Isabella
B) Catherine’s son with Edgar
C) Hindley’s illegitimate child
D) Joseph’s nephew
Answer: A) Heathcliff’s son with Isabella

15. What is the name of Catherine and Edgar’s daughter?

A) Frances
B) Cathy Linton
C) Isabella
D) Ellen
Answer: B) Cathy Linton

16. Which characters represent the next generation in the novel?

A) Hareton Earnshaw, Cathy Linton, and Linton Heathcliff
B) Catherine, Heathcliff, and Edgar
C) Hindley, Nelly, and Isabella
D) Joseph, Frances, and Lockwood
Answer: A) Hareton Earnshaw, Cathy Linton, and Linton Heathcliff

17. What ultimately happens to Heathcliff?

A) He is killed by Hareton
B) He dies longing for Catherine
C) He flees from England
D) He is imprisoned
Answer: B) He dies longing for Catherine

18. What do Wuthering Heights and Thrushcross Grange symbolize?

A) Love and jealousy
B) Nature and civilization
C) Riches and poverty
D) Sin and virtue
Answer: B) Nature and civilization

19. What is the primary theme of Wuthering Heights?

A) Social progress and education
B) Revenge and destructive passion
C) Humor and irony
D) Friendship and loyalty
Answer: B) Revenge and destructive passion

20. Who inherits both Wuthering Heights and Thrushcross Grange at the end?

A) Heathcliff
B) Hareton Earnshaw and Cathy Linton
C) Linton Heathcliff
D) Joseph
Answer: B) Hareton Earnshaw and Cathy Linton

📘 MCQs on George Eliot – “Silas Marner” Bihar STET English Paper 2

1. Who is the author of Silas Marner?

A) Thomas Hardy
B) George Eliot
C) Charles Dickens
D) Jane Austen
Answer: B) George Eliot

2. What is George Eliot’s real name?

A) Emily Brontë
B) Mary Ann Evans
C) Charlotte Brontë
D) Elizabeth Gaskell
Answer: B) Mary Ann Evans

3. In which year was Silas Marner published?

A) 1859
B) 1861
C) 1865
D) 1870
Answer: B) 1861

4. What is Silas Marner’s profession?

A) Farmer
B) Schoolteacher
C) Weaver
D) Carpenter
Answer: C) Weaver

5. Where does Silas Marner live after leaving Lantern Yard?

A) Raveloe
B) Hayslope
C) Casterbridge
D) Meryton
Answer: A) Raveloe

6. Why does Silas Marner leave Lantern Yard?

A) He loses his job
B) He is falsely accused of theft
C) He falls in love
D) He kills someone
Answer: B) He is falsely accused of theft

7. What was stolen from Silas Marner that made him heartbroken?

A) His Bible
B) His gold coins
C) His tools
D) His weaving machine
Answer: B) His gold coins

8. Who steals Silas Marner’s gold?

A) Dunstan Cass
B) Godfrey Cass
C) Squire Cass
D) William Dane
Answer: A) Dunstan Cass

9. Who is Godfrey Cass?

A) The village doctor
B) The eldest son of Squire Cass
C) Silas’s best friend
D) The local priest
Answer: B) The eldest son of Squire Cass

10. Who is Eppie?

A) Silas’s niece
B) Godfrey’s daughter
C) A poor orphan adopted by Silas
D) Dunstan’s wife
Answer: C) A poor orphan adopted by Silas

11. How does Eppie enter Silas Marner’s life?

A) She is brought by villagers
B) She crawls into his cottage on a snowy night
C) He finds her in a market
D) He adopts her from an orphanage
Answer: B) She crawls into his cottage on a snowy night

12. Who is Eppie’s biological father?

A) Silas Marner
B) Dunstan Cass
C) Godfrey Cass
D) William Dane
Answer: C) Godfrey Cass

13. What happens to Eppie’s mother, Molly Farren?

A) She runs away
B) She dies in the snow outside Silas’s cottage
C) She is imprisoned
D) She marries again
Answer: B) She dies in the snow outside Silas’s cottage

14. How does Eppie change Silas Marner’s life?

A) She helps him find his gold
B) She restores his faith and happiness
C) She makes him rich
D) She helps him leave Raveloe
Answer: B) She restores his faith and happiness

15. What is the main theme of Silas Marner?

A) Wealth and greed
B) Industrial revolution
C) Redemption and human relationships
D) Travel and adventure
Answer: C) Redemption and human relationships

16. What happens to Dunstan Cass in the end?

A) He is arrested
B) He disappears forever
C) His body is found in the Stone-pit with Silas’s gold
D) He escapes to London
Answer: C) His body is found in the Stone-pit with Silas’s gold

17. What does Godfrey Cass want later in life?

A) To reclaim his daughter Eppie
B) To apologize to Dunstan
C) To become mayor
D) To marry Nancy Lammeter
Answer: A) To reclaim his daughter Eppie

18. What is Eppie’s decision when Godfrey reveals he is her father?

A) She leaves Silas
B) She forgives him and leaves
C) She refuses and stays with Silas
D) She marries his son
Answer: C) She refuses and stays with Silas

19. Who does Eppie marry at the end of the novel?

A) Aaron Winthrop
B) Godfrey Cass
C) William Dane
D) Dunstan Cass
Answer: A) Aaron Winthrop

20. What moral lesson does Silas Marner teach?

A) Greed leads to ruin
B) Faith in humanity brings redemption
C) Love is temporary
D) Money ensures happiness
Answer: B) Faith in humanity brings redemption

1.4 British Literary Criticism

MCQ on History of Literary Criticism and the following texts:

Philip Sydney- “An Apology for Poetry”
Alexander Pope- “An Essay on Criticism”
Samuel Johnson- “Preface to Shakespeare”
William Wordsworth- “Preface to Lyrical Ballads”
Matthew Arnold – “The Study of Poetry”
T.S. Eliot - “ The Function of Criticism”

Philip Sidney – “An Apology for Poetry” MCQs with Answers | Bihar STET English Paper-2

1. Who wrote An Apology for Poetry?

A) Edmund Spenser
B) Philip Sidney
C) Sir Thomas Wyatt
D) William Shakespeare
Answer: B) Philip Sidney

2. An Apology for Poetry is also known as—

A) Defence of Poesy
B) The Countess of Pembroke’s Arcadia
C) The Defence of Learning
D) The Arte of English Poesie
Answer: A) Defence of Poesy

3. In which century was An Apology for Poetry written?

A) 15th century
B) 16th century
C) 17th century
D) 18th century
Answer: B) 16th century

4. What is the main purpose of An Apology for Poetry?

A) To criticize poetry
B) To defend poetry against its critics
C) To describe poetic techniques
D) To compare prose and poetry
Answer: B) To defend poetry against its critics

5. Which of the following is a key argument Sidney makes about poetry?

A) Poetry is inferior to history and philosophy
B) Poetry teaches moral lessons while delighting the reader
C) Poetry is only for entertainment
D) Poetry should imitate prose strictly
Answer: B) Poetry teaches moral lessons while delighting the reader

6. Who were some critics of poetry during Sidney’s time?

A) Aristocrats
B) Philosophers like Stephen Gosson
C) Religious preachers
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above

7. Sidney divides the powers of poetry into—

A) Moral, philosophical, and religious
B) Teaching, delighting, and moving the passions
C) Writing, reading, and reciting
D) Truth, beauty, and utility
Answer: B) Teaching, delighting, and moving the passions

8. According to Sidney, how does poetry differ from philosophy?

A) Philosophy entertains more than poetry
B) Poetry can teach truth in a more pleasing way
C) Philosophy is imaginative while poetry is literal
D) Poetry is a historical record
Answer: B) Poetry can teach truth in a more pleasing way

9. Sidney argues that poetry is—

A) Dangerous and misleading
B) The “mirror of life” showing moral truths
C) Only for the elite
D) Written only for rulers
Answer: B) The “mirror of life” showing moral truths

10. Which ancient poet does Sidney praise in An Apology for Poetry?

A) Homer
B) Virgil
C) Ovid
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above

11. Sidney criticizes who for attacking poetry?

A) Philosophers and critics like Stephen Gosson
B) Renaissance painters
C) Courtly nobles
D) Historians
Answer: A) Philosophers and critics like Stephen Gosson

12. What literary quality does Sidney consider poetry to have?

A) Imagination
B) Factual accuracy only
C) Political utility
D) Religious authority only
Answer: A) Imagination

13. Sidney believes poetry is superior to history because—

A) History is often inaccurate
B) Poetry can teach universal truths, not just past events
C) History is boring
D) Poetry is longer
Answer: B) Poetry can teach universal truths, not just past events

14. What is the role of pleasure in poetry according to Sidney?

A) Pleasure is the main goal
B) Pleasure attracts readers to moral instruction
C) Pleasure is irrelevant
D) Pleasure should be avoided
Answer: B) Pleasure attracts readers to moral instruction

15. Sidney compares poets to—

A) Historians
B) Philosophers
C) Lawmakers and moral teachers
D) Priests
Answer: C) Lawmakers and moral teachers

16. Which concept is central to Sidney’s defense of poetry?

A) Poetry’s ability to inspire virtue
B) Poetry’s entertainment value alone
C) Poetry’s economic benefit
D) Poetry’s scientific accuracy
Answer: A) Poetry’s ability to inspire virtue

17. What metaphor does Sidney use for poetry’s function?

A) A light in darkness
B) A mirror of life
C) A battlefield
D) A ship on the sea
Answer: B) A mirror of life

18. According to Sidney, poetry is—

A) Useful only for children
B) Harmful to moral development
C) The highest form of learning
D) A pastime for peasants
Answer: C) The highest form of learning

19. Sidney’s An Apology for Poetry is written in—

A) Verse
B) Prose
C) Drama
D) Letters
Answer: B) Prose

20. The overall purpose of Sidney’s work is to—

A) Criticize Renaissance culture
B) Advocate for poetry as morally and intellectually valuable
C) Compare poetry with music
D) Explain how to write poetry
Answer: B) Advocate for poetry as morally and intellectually valuable

MCQs on Alexander Pope’s “An Essay on Criticism” — for Bihar STET English Paper 2, UGC NET

1. Who is the author of An Essay on Criticism?

A) John Dryden
B) Alexander Pope
C) Samuel Johnson
D) Jonathan Swift
Answer: B) Alexander Pope

2. When was An Essay on Criticism first published?

A) 1709
B) 1711
C) 1715
D) 1725
Answer: B) 1711

3. What is the literary form of An Essay on Criticism?

A) Blank verse
B) Heroic couplet
C) Free verse
D) Ballad
Answer: B) Heroic couplet

4. During which literary period was An Essay on Criticism written?

A) Romantic Age
B) Augustan Age
C) Victorian Age
D) Modern Age
Answer: B) Augustan Age

5. How old was Alexander Pope when he wrote An Essay on Criticism?

A) 18
B) 23
C) 25
D) 30
Answer: B) 23

6. What is the main theme of An Essay on Criticism?

A) Love and nature
B) Moral virtue
C) Art of literary criticism and poetic judgment
D) Satire on politics
Answer: C) Art of literary criticism and poetic judgment

7. Who are the main targets of Pope’s criticism in the poem?

A) Political leaders
B) False critics and bad poets
C) The clergy
D) The monarchy
Answer: B) False critics and bad poets

8. What does Pope mean by “A little learning is a dangerous thing”?

A) Knowledge is harmful
B) Incomplete knowledge leads to error
C) Education is unnecessary
D) Ignorance is bliss
Answer: B) Incomplete knowledge leads to error

9. “To err is human; to forgive, divine.”

What does this famous line suggest?
A) Everyone makes mistakes, forgiveness is godly
B) Only divine beings forgive
C) Humans never forgive
D) Errors can’t be corrected
Answer: A) Everyone makes mistakes, forgiveness is godly

10. Which ancient critics influenced An Essay on Criticism most?

A) Aristotle, Horace, and Longinus
B) Socrates and Plato
C) Homer and Virgil
D) Cicero and Tacitus
Answer: A) Aristotle, Horace, and Longinus

11. What type of poem is An Essay on Criticism?

A) Didactic and satirical
B) Romantic and lyrical
C) Epic and tragic
D) Comic and narrative
Answer: A) Didactic and satirical

12. What does Pope advise critics to follow?

A) Their personal taste
B) The rules of nature and classical models
C) Modern innovations
D) Emotional judgment
Answer: B) The rules of nature and classical models

13. Nature in the Poem

What does “Nature” symbolize in An Essay on Criticism?
A) Physical world
B) Human instinct and reason
C) Landscape beauty
D) Divine punishment
Answer: B) Human instinct and reason

14. According to Pope, what should wit be combined with?

A) Fancy
B) Humor
C) Judgment
D) Imitation
Answer: C) Judgment

15. What does this line mean?

A) True wit enhances nature’s expression
B) Wit hides the truth
C) Wit is unnatural
D) Wit is only for scholars
Answer: A) True wit enhances nature’s expression

16. What was Pope’s main purpose in writing An Essay on Criticism?

A) To teach how to criticize with fairness and taste
B) To attack other poets
C) To glorify himself
D) To praise Shakespeare
Answer: A) To teach how to criticize with fairness and taste

17. How many parts does An Essay on Criticism have?

A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five
Answer: B) Three

18. What does Pope discuss in Part I?

A) The role of critics and the importance of humility
B) The greatness of ancient poets
C) Love and passion
D) Political corruption
Answer: A) The role of critics and the importance of humility

19. What is discussed in Part II of the poem?

A) Faults of critics and bad judgment
B) Religion and morality
C) History of England
D) Satire on politicians
Answer: A) Faults of critics and bad judgment

20. What does Pope emphasize in Part III?

A) Moral values and virtues of good criticism
B) Romantic love
C) Greek mythology
D) Modern education
Answer: A) Moral values and virtues of good criticism

MCQs on Samuel Johnson’s “Preface to Shakespeare” — ideal for Bihar STET English Paper II, UGC NET

1. Author of Preface to Shakespeare

Who wrote Preface to Shakespeare?
A) Alexander Pope
B) Samuel Johnson
C) John Dryden
D) Joseph Addison
Answer: B) Samuel Johnson

2. When was Preface to Shakespeare published?

A) 1750
B) 1765
C) 1770
D) 1780
Answer: B) 1765

3. Why did Johnson write Preface to Shakespeare?

A) As an introduction to his edition of Shakespeare’s works
B) As a biography of Shakespeare
C) As a defense of classical drama
D) As a satire on critics
Answer: A) As an introduction to his edition of Shakespeare’s works

4. How does Johnson view Shakespeare in his preface?

A) As an uneducated poet
B) As a poet of nature and universal appeal
C) As a political writer
D) As a religious poet
Answer: B) As a poet of nature and universal appeal

5. What does Johnson mean by calling Shakespeare “the poet of nature”?

A) He wrote about forests and rivers
B) He depicted natural scenery vividly
C) He represented universal human nature truthfully
D) He followed the laws of nature
Answer: C) He represented universal human nature truthfully

6. According to Johnson, Shakespeare’s characters are—

A) Unreal and artificial
B) Universally true to life
C) Too idealistic
D) Based on myths
Answer: B) Universally true to life

7. Which flaw does Johnson point out in Shakespeare’s plays?

A) Lack of rhyme
B) Neglect of the unities of time and place
C) Poor grammar
D) Use of foreign words
Answer: B) Neglect of the unities of time and place

8. What is Johnson’s attitude toward classical unities?

A) Strict follower of Aristotle
B) Believes rules should never be broken
C) Supports Shakespeare’s freedom from rigid rules
D) Condemns Shakespeare for ignoring them
Answer: C) Supports Shakespeare’s freedom from rigid rules

9. Johnson’s View on Shakespeare’s Morality

What does Johnson say about Shakespeare’s moral vision?
A) He is immoral and corrupt
B) He always rewards the virtuous and punishes the wicked
C) He does not always show poetic justice but reflects real life
D) He focuses only on comedy
Answer: C) He does not always show poetic justice but reflects real life

10. Shakespeare’s Imitation

According to Johnson, Shakespeare’s greatest excellence lies in—
A) His learning
B) His imitation of life
C) His poetic diction
D) His historical knowledge
Answer: B) His imitation of life

11. Johnson’s Critique on Shakespeare’s Style

What does Johnson say about Shakespeare’s style?
A) It is always perfect
B) It is sometimes inflated and affected
C) It is too simple
D) It lacks imagination
Answer: B) It is sometimes inflated and affected

12. Johnson on Tragicomedy

How does Johnson defend Shakespeare’s mixing of tragic and comic elements?
A) He condemns it
B) He justifies it as true to human experience
C) He ignores it completely
D) He says it was accidental
Answer: B) He justifies it as true to human experience

13. What does Johnson say about Shakespeare’s learning?

A) He was deeply learned in classical literature
B) He was unlearned but naturally wise
C) He plagiarized from Latin authors
D) He was a poor writer
Answer: B) He was unlearned but naturally wise

14. Which of the following faults does Johnson mention?

A) Indecent jokes and puns
B) Weak female characters
C) Too many songs
D) Overuse of metaphors
Answer: A) Indecent jokes and puns

15. What kind of critic is Johnson in his Preface?

A) Romantic
B) Neoclassical but practical
C) Formalist
D) Impressionist
Answer: B) Neoclassical but practical

16. How does Johnson describe Shakespeare’s language?

A) Artificial and rigid
B) Easy and natural
C) Rough and unrefined
D) Dull and monotonous
Answer: B) Easy and natural

17. According to Johnson, why is Shakespeare still popular?

A) His themes are universal and timeless
B) His plays are full of historical accuracy
C) His language is simple
D) His humor suits all ages
Answer: A) His themes are universal and timeless

18. What is the importance of Preface to Shakespeare in English criticism?

A) It started Romantic criticism
B) It is the first serious modern evaluation of Shakespeare’s genius
C) It opposed all classical ideas
D) It was purely biographical
Answer: B) It is the first serious modern evaluation of Shakespeare’s genius

19. What is Johnson’s balanced opinion on Shakespeare’s faults?

A) His faults are too many to ignore
B) His faults are outweighed by his beauties
C) His faults make him inferior to others
D) His faults are intentional
Answer: B) His faults are outweighed by his beauties

20. What does Johnson’s Preface to Shakespeare mainly establish him as?

A) A poet
B) A translator
C) A practical and balanced literary critic
D) A dramatist
Answer: C) A practical and balanced literary critic

MCQs on William Wordsworth’s “Preface to Lyrical Ballads” —for Bihar STET English Paper II, UGC NET

1. Author of Preface to Lyrical Ballads

A) Samuel Taylor Coleridge
B) William Wordsworth
C) John Keats
D) P. B. Shelley
Answer: B) William Wordsworth

2. Year of Publication

When was Preface to Lyrical Ballads first published?
A) 1798
B) 1800
C) 1802
D) 1815
Answer: B) 1800

3. Co-Author of Lyrical Ballads

Who was the co-author of Lyrical Ballads along with Wordsworth?
A) Lord Byron
B) John Keats
C) S. T. Coleridge
D) Thomas Gray
Answer: C) S. T. Coleridge

4. Aim of Lyrical Ballads

What was the main aim of Lyrical Ballads according to Wordsworth?
A) To imitate classical poets
B) To reform the language and subject of poetry
C) To write heroic poems
D) To use complicated diction
Answer: B) To reform the language and subject of poetry

5. Definition of Poetry

How does Wordsworth define poetry in the preface?
A) “The spontaneous overflow of powerful feelings”
B) “Measured thoughts in verse”
C) “An imitation of nature”
D) “Moral truth in words”
Answer: A) “The spontaneous overflow of powerful feelings”

6. Origin of Poetry

According to Wordsworth, poetry “takes its origin from”—
A) Knowledge
B) Strong emotion recollected in tranquillity
C) Nature’s beauty
D) Imitation of classics
Answer: B) Strong emotion recollected in tranquillity

7. Subject of Poetry

What kind of subjects does Wordsworth prefer for poetry?
A) Supernatural themes
B) Common life and rustic people
C) Myths and legends
D) Royal stories
Answer: B) Common life and rustic people

8. Wordsworth’s View on Language

According to Wordsworth, what kind of language should poetry use?
A) The language of the educated class
B) The language of common men
C) Archaic language
D) Latinized diction
Answer: B) The language of common men

9. Wordsworth’s Reaction to Neoclassicism

What was Wordsworth reacting against in his preface?
A) Romanticism
B) Neoclassical artificiality and poetic diction
C) Naturalism
D) Realism
Answer: B) Neoclassical artificiality and poetic diction

10. Purpose of Poetry

What is the purpose of poetry according to Wordsworth?
A) To instruct and delight
B) To create beauty
C) To trace the universal laws of human nature
D) To provide moral lessons only
Answer: C) To trace the universal laws of human nature

11. Role of Imagination

In Wordsworth’s view, imagination—
A) Has no role in poetry
B) Helps transform common things into something extraordinary
C) Is inferior to reason
D) Should be avoided in simple poetry
Answer: B) Helps transform common things into something extraordinary

12. Wordsworth’s Opinion on Meter

What does Wordsworth say about the use of meter in poetry?
A) It is unnecessary
B) It adds pleasure and regularity to poetry
C) It should be replaced by prose
D) It limits creativity
Answer: B) It adds pleasure and regularity to poetry

13. Difference between Poetry and Science

According to Wordsworth, poetry differs from science because—
A) It deals with imagination and feeling
B) It is based on experiment
C) It uses logic
D) It has no moral purpose
Answer: A) It deals with imagination and feeling

14. Wordsworth’s Idea of a Poet

Who is a poet, according to Wordsworth?
A) A philosopher
B) A man speaking to men
C) A genius separate from society
D) A historian
Answer: B) A man speaking to men

15. Wordsworth’s View on Poetic Diction

Why does Wordsworth reject “poetic diction”?
A) It lacks rhythm
B) It is artificial and far from real speech
C) It uses too many metaphors
D) It ignores rhyme
Answer: B) It is artificial and far from real speech

16. Influence of Nature

What does Wordsworth say about nature in relation to poetry?
A) Nature is a mirror of human emotions
B) Nature is only decorative
C) Nature is inferior to art
D) Nature should be avoided
Answer: A) Nature is a mirror of human emotions

17. Poetry and Morality

How does Wordsworth connect poetry with morality?
A) Poetry promotes sympathy and virtue
B) Poetry has no moral function
C) Poetry corrupts society
D) Poetry is purely artistic
Answer: A) Poetry promotes sympathy and virtue

18. Wordsworth’s Contribution

What is the greatest contribution of Preface to Lyrical Ballads?
A) Foundation of Romantic literary theory
B) Return to classical ideals
C) Promotion of satire
D) Imitation of Greek models
Answer: A) Foundation of Romantic literary theory

19. Wordsworth’s View on Emotion

What is the role of emotion in poetry according to Wordsworth?
A) Emotion should be suppressed
B) Poetry originates from powerful emotion
C) Emotion makes poetry impure
D) Emotion should be avoided
Answer: B) Poetry originates from powerful emotion

20. Wordsworth’s Literary Movement

Which literary movement does Wordsworth’s preface belong to?
A) Neoclassicism
B) Realism
C) Romanticism
D) Modernism
Answer: C) Romanticism

1.5 Indian Poetry

History of Indian English Poetry and the following poems:

a) Derozio- “ Poetry”

b) Toru Dutt- “Lotus”

c) R. N. Tagore- “Where the Mind is Without Fear”

d) Sarojini Naidu- “The Palanquin Bearers”

e) Kamala Das- “An Introduction”

f) Nissim Ezekiel- “The Night of the Scorpion”

g) A.K. Ramanujan- “Striders”

h) Arun Kolatkar- “An Old Woman”

i) Vikram Seth- “A Little Distance”

j) Sujata Bhatt- “Voice of the Unwanted Girl”

k) Eunice De Souza- “Sweet Sixteen”

l) Gurudas Mukherjee- “The Hollyhock”

m) Agha Shahid Ali- “Postcard from Kashmir”

n) Tabish Khair - “South Delhi Murder”

MCQ on Derozio’s poem “Poetry” | Indian Poetry MCQ

1. Who is the author of the poem “Poetry”?

A) Toru Dutt
B) Rabindranath Tagore
C) Henry Louis Vivian Derozio
D) Sri Aurobindo
Answer: C) Henry Louis Vivian Derozio

2. What is the main theme of Derozio’s poem “Poetry”?

A) Love and betrayal
B) Power of poetic imagination
C) Social injustice
D) Nature’s beauty
Answer: B) Power of poetic imagination

3. According to Derozio, what does poetry awaken in human beings?

A) Love for adventure
B) Hidden emotions and imagination
C) Desire for wealth
D) Hatred for injustice
Answer: B) Hidden emotions and imagination

4. How does Derozio describe the poet in “Poetry”?

A) As a prophet and visionary
B) As a critic of government
C) As a man of sorrow
D) As a teacher of science
Answer: A) As a prophet and visionary

5. What tone dominates Derozio’s “Poetry”?

A) Satirical
B) Inspirational
C) Melancholic
D) Ironic
Answer: B) Inspirational

6. What does Derozio consider poetry to be?

A) A divine gift that enlightens minds
B) A form of entertainment
C) A wasteful emotion
D) A personal secret
Answer: A) A divine gift that enlightens minds

7. What does Derozio suggest about the role of the poet?

A) To teach moral lessons only
B) To spread light and inspiration
C) To criticize society
D) To entertain readers
Answer: B) To spread light and inspiration

8. Which quality does Derozio associate with poetry?

A) Cold logic
B) Transformative power
C) Harsh realism
D) Political criticism
Answer: B) Transformative power

9. What emotion does Derozio mainly express in “Poetry”?

A) Joy of creation
B) Fear of death
C) Hatred for hypocrisy
D) Sorrow for lost love
Answer: A) Joy of creation

10. In “Poetry”, Derozio regards poetry as a source of—

A) Sorrow and regret
B) Light and truth
C) Political awareness
D) Material gain
Answer: B) Light and truth

11. Which of the following best describes Derozio’s attitude towards poetry?

A) Reverence and admiration
B) Indifference
C) Pessimism
D) Anger
Answer: A) Reverence and admiration

12. What does poetry help humans to understand, according to Derozio?

A) The secrets of nature
B) Their inner selves
C) Political systems
D) Historical events
Answer: B) Their inner selves

13. Derozio’s “Poetry” reflects which literary movement’s spirit?

A) Romanticism
B) Realism
C) Classicism
D) Modernism
Answer: A) Romanticism

14. What does Derozio suggest happens when poetry touches the soul?

A) It awakens noble feelings and imagination
B) It leads to confusion
C) It creates rebellion
D) It ends curiosity
Answer: A) It awakens noble feelings and imagination

15. Which word best captures the essence of Derozio’s “Poetry”?

A) Imagination
B) Logic
C) Anger
D) Fear
Answer: A) Imagination

16. In “Poetry”, what does Derozio consider poetry’s ultimate power?

A) To inspire and uplift humanity
B) To record history
C) To serve politics
D) To promote science
Answer: A) To inspire and uplift humanity

17. What quality of the poet does Derozio celebrate?

A) The ability to dream and envision
B) The skill to debate
C) The power to control society
D) The need for fame
Answer: A) The ability to dream and envision

18. In Derozio’s “Poetry”, poetry is seen as a—

A) Sacred light of inspiration
B) Tool for criticism
C) Method of teaching
D) Form of punishment
Answer: A) Sacred light of inspiration

19. What human quality does Derozio say poetry enriches?

A) Greed
B) Sympathy
C) Imagination
D) Pride
Answer: C) Imagination

20. The poem “Poetry” by Derozio mainly encourages—

A) Love for poetic creation and imagination
B) Pursuit of power and wealth
C) Obedience to rules
D) Hatred for romantic ideals
Answer: A) Love for poetic creation and imagination

MCQs on Toru Dutt’s poem “The Lotus” | Indian Poetry MCQ

1. Who is the author of the poem “The Lotus”?

A) Sarojini Naidu
B) Toru Dutt
C) Rabindranath Tagore
D) Henry Derozio
Answer: B) Toru Dutt

2. What is the central theme of Toru Dutt’s poem “The Lotus”?

A) Conflict between love and hatred
B) Superiority of the lotus over other flowers
C) Struggle between religion and science
D) Power of imagination
Answer: B) Superiority of the lotus over other flowers

3. In “The Lotus”, what two flowers are competing for supremacy?

A) Rose and Tulip
B) Rose and Lily
C) Daisy and Sunflower
D) Jasmine and Violet
Answer: B) Rose and Lily

4. What does the Rose symbolize in the poem “The Lotus”?

A) Purity and peace
B) Passion and love
C) Beauty and vanity
D) Hope and joy
Answer: B) Passion and love

5. What does the Lily symbolize in the poem “The Lotus”?

A) Purity and spiritual beauty
B) Pride and ego
C) Friendship and kindness
D) Wealth and fame
Answer: A) Purity and spiritual beauty

6. What does the Lotus represent in the poem?

A) A compromise between love and purity
B) The symbol of power
C) The symbol of wealth
D) The flower of sadness
Answer: A) A compromise between love and purity

7. Which goddess helps to resolve the conflict in the poem “The Lotus”?

A) Lakshmi
B) Saraswati
C) Flora, the goddess of flowers
D) Aphrodite
Answer: C) Flora, the goddess of flowers

8. How does Flora resolve the dispute between the Rose and the Lily?

A) She chooses the Lotus as a blend of both their qualities
B) She declares Rose the winner
C) She destroys both flowers
D) She creates a new flower from the Sun
Answer: A) She chooses the Lotus as a blend of both their qualities

9. The Lotus combines the—

A) Color of the Rose and the purity of the Lily
B) Fragrance of Jasmine and color of Sunflower
C) Beauty of Daisy and strength of Tulip
D) Elegance of Violet and charm of Lily
Answer: A) Color of the Rose and the purity of the Lily

10. What is the tone of the poem “The Lotus”?

A) Humorous
B) Philosophical and symbolic
C) Tragic
D) Satirical
Answer: B) Philosophical and symbolic

11. Which literary device is prominently used in “The Lotus”?

A) Personification
B) Hyperbole
C) Irony
D) Alliteration
Answer: A) Personification

12. What is the deeper meaning of the poem “The Lotus”?

A) Harmony between Eastern and Western ideals
B) Struggle between power and greed
C) Importance of material success
D) Decline of beauty and art
Answer: A) Harmony between Eastern and Western ideals

13. The poem “The Lotus” reflects which of the following values?

A) Unity in diversity
B) Love for adventure
C) Rebellion against nature
D) Hatred for beauty
Answer: A) Unity in diversity

14. What poetic form does Toru Dutt use in “The Lotus”?

A) Sonnet
B) Ode
C) Ballad
D) Elegy
Answer: A) Sonnet

15. Which two qualities are combined in the Lotus?

A) Love and purity
B) Anger and pride
C) Wealth and fame
D) Power and deceit
Answer: A) Love and purity

16. The poem “The Lotus” uses mythology to—

A) Explain the origin of the Lotus
B) Criticize religion
C) Praise the British empire
D) Discuss political themes
Answer: A) Explain the origin of the Lotus

17. What does the Lotus symbolize in Indian culture?

A) Peace, enlightenment, and divine beauty
B) Power and dominance
C) Darkness and fear
D) Greed and jealousy
Answer: A) Peace, enlightenment, and divine beauty

18. The conflict between the Rose and the Lily can be seen as—

A) A clash between passion and purity
B) A dispute between nations
C) A war between humans
D) A scientific debate
Answer: A) A clash between passion and purity

19. What is the rhyme scheme of “The Lotus”?

A) ABAB CDCD EFEF GG
B) ABBA ABBA CDE CDE
C) AABB CCDD EEFF GG
D) ABC ABC DEF DEF
Answer: B) ABBA ABBA CDE CDE

20. What is the overall message of Toru Dutt’s “The Lotus”?

A) True beauty lies in harmony and balance
B) Power is greater than love
C) Purity has no importance
D) Conflict leads to greatness
Answer: A) True beauty lies in harmony and balance

MCQ on Tagore's 'Where the Mind is Without Fear'- Indian Poetry for Bihar STET English Paper 2

1. Who is the poet of “Where the Mind is Without Fear”?

A) Sarojini Naidu
B) R. N. Tagore
C) Toru Dutt
D) Henry Derozio
Answer: B) R. N. Tagore

2. In which book of poems was “Where the Mind is Without Fear” originally published?

A) The Crescent Moon
B) Gitanjali
C) The Gardener
D) Fruit-Gathering
Answer: B) Gitanjali

3. What type of poem is “Where the Mind is Without Fear”?

A) A patriotic poem
B) A romantic poem
C) A humorous poem
D) A narrative poem
Answer: A) A patriotic poem

4. What does the poet pray for in “Where the Mind is Without Fear”?

A) A world of wealth
B) A country free from fear and narrow-mindedness
C) Success in war
D) The power to rule the world
Answer: B) A country free from fear and narrow-mindedness

5. What does “Where the mind is without fear” symbolize?

A) Freedom of thought and expression
B) Fear of authority
C) Respect for power
D) Hatred for foreign rule
Answer: A) Freedom of thought and expression

6. What does the poet mean by “Where knowledge is free”?

A) Education should be available to all without restrictions
B) Knowledge should be bought with money
C) Only the rich should have access to education
D) Knowledge should remain a secret
Answer: A) Education should be available to all without restrictions

7. What does “narrow domestic walls” refer to?

A) Physical barriers between houses
B) Social and religious divisions
C) Walls of schools and colleges
D) National boundaries
Answer: B) Social and religious divisions

8. What does “the clear stream of reason” symbolize?

A) The power of human imagination
B) The flow of logical and rational thinking
C) The beauty of rivers
D) The emotional strength of man
Answer: B) The flow of logical and rational thinking

9. What does “the dreary desert sand of dead habit” refer to?

A) The lifelessness caused by old traditions and customs
B) The poverty of rural India
C) The desert of Rajasthan
D) The struggles of farmers
Answer: A) The lifelessness caused by old traditions and customs

10. To whom is the poem “Where the Mind is Without Fear” addressed?

A) The British Government
B) The poet’s countrymen
C) God (the Almighty)
D) The Indian youth
Answer: C) God (the Almighty)

11. What does the poet pray his country to be “awakened” into?

A) The heaven of freedom
B) The land of dreams
C) The age of science
D) The world of art
Answer: A) The heaven of freedom

12. Which line from the poem expresses the poet’s faith in truth?

A) “Where tireless striving stretches its arms towards perfection”
B) “Where the clear stream of reason has not lost its way”
C) “Where words come out from the depth of truth”
D) “Where the mind is without fear and the head is held high”
Answer: C) “Where words come out from the depth of truth”

13. What is the tone of the poem “Where the Mind is Without Fear”?

A) Prayerful and optimistic
B) Sad and hopeless
C) Angry and rebellious
D) Humorous and light-hearted
Answer: A) Prayerful and optimistic

14. What kind of freedom does Tagore desire in this poem?

A) Political and spiritual freedom
B) Freedom from education
C) Freedom from responsibility
D) Freedom to travel abroad
Answer: A) Political and spiritual freedom

15. Which literary device is used in “the clear stream of reason”?

A) Simile
B) Metaphor
C) Hyperbole
D) Irony
Answer: B) Metaphor

16. The poem “Where the Mind is Without Fear” envisions—

A) A perfect and progressive nation
B) A land ruled by fear
C) A society bound by traditions
D) A place of ignorance
Answer: A) A perfect and progressive nation

17. What is the poet’s dream for his countrymen?

A) They should be fearless and truthful
B) They should obey blindly
C) They should forget their heritage
D) They should isolate themselves
Answer: A) They should be fearless and truthful

18. The poem is written in the form of—

A) A prayer to God
B) A dialogue between two people
C) A speech
D) A letter
Answer: A) A prayer to God

19. What is the mood of the poem?

A) Hopeful and inspirational
B) Bitter and resentful
C) Humorous and sarcastic
D) Cold and detached
Answer: A) Hopeful and inspirational

20. What is the main message of “Where the Mind is Without Fear”?

A) True freedom comes from knowledge, truth, and unity
B) Wealth is the key to success
C) Fear maintains discipline
D) Religion should control education
Answer: A) True freedom comes from knowledge, truth, and unity

MCQ on Sarojini Naidu's poem “The Palanquin Bearers” - Indian Poetry for STET, NET

1. Who is the poet of “The Palanquin Bearers”?

A) Toru Dutt
B) Sarojini Naidu
C) Rabindranath Tagore
D) Kamala Das
Answer: B) Sarojini Naidu

2. What is the central theme of “The Palanquin Bearers”?

A) Hardship of the poor
B) The joy and pride of the palanquin bearers in carrying the bride
C) The sadness of the bride
D) The beauty of nature
Answer: B) The joy and pride of the palanquin bearers in carrying the bride

3. What does the palanquin carry in the poem?

A) A princess
B) A young bride
C) A goddess idol
D) A nobleman
Answer: B) A young bride

4. How do the palanquin bearers carry the bride?

A) Slowly and carefully
B) Proudly and joyfully
C) With anger and fatigue
D) Reluctantly
Answer: B) Proudly and joyfully

5. What emotion does the poem mainly express?

A) Joy and tenderness
B) Anger and protest
C) Despair and loss
D) Pride and arrogance
Answer: A) Joy and tenderness

6. Which of the following lines is repeated as a refrain in the poem?

A) “Lightly, O lightly, we bear her along”
B) “Softly the moonlight falls”
C) “Sing we a song of joy”
D) “Slowly and sadly we bear her”
Answer: A) “Lightly, O lightly, we bear her along”

7. What does the word palanquin mean?

A) A song of joy
B) A carriage for carrying people on shoulders
C) A festival of flowers
D) A traditional Indian dance
Answer: B) A carriage for carrying people on shoulders

8. What literary device is mainly used in the poem “The Palanquin Bearers”?

A) Simile and metaphor
B) Irony
C) Paradox
D) Hyperbole
Answer: A) Simile and metaphor

9. What does the line “She sways like a flower in the wind of our song” suggest?

A) The bride’s grace and beauty
B) The weight of the palanquin
C) The anger of the bearers
D) The harshness of the journey
Answer: A) The bride’s grace and beauty

10. How do the palanquin bearers view their task?

A) As a burden
B) As a joyful duty
C) As a punishment
D) As meaningless work
Answer: B) As a joyful duty

11. What is the tone of the poem “The Palanquin Bearers”?

A) Joyful and musical
B) Sad and sorrowful
C) Angry and rebellious
D) Calm and detached
Answer: A) Joyful and musical

12. Which natural images are used to describe the bride?

A) Flower, dew, tear, and pearl
B) Mountain, rock, and tree
C) River, rain, and cloud
D) Fire, sun, and star
Answer: A) Flower, dew, tear, and pearl

13. What does the line “She hangs like a star in the dew of our song” symbolize?

A) The bride’s purity and brightness
B) The darkness of the night
C) The end of the journey
D) The sadness of separation
Answer: A) The bride’s purity and brightness

14. What mood does the poem capture?

A) A blend of joy and devotion
B) A mood of anger and frustration
C) A mood of loneliness
D) A feeling of pride
Answer: A) A blend of joy and devotion

15. What is the rhyme scheme of the poem “The Palanquin Bearers”?

A) ABAB
B) AABB
C) ABBA
D) ABCB
Answer: B) AABB

16. What kind of poem is “The Palanquin Bearers”?

A) A lyrical poem
B) A narrative poem
C) A ballad
D) An elegy
Answer: A) A lyrical poem

17. What does the poem celebrate?

A) The harmony between human labor and beauty
B) The end of slavery
C) The sadness of marriage
D) The decline of traditions
Answer: A) The harmony between human labor and beauty

18. How many stanzas does the poem contain?

A) Four
B) Five
C) Six
D) Seven
Answer: C) Six

19. What poetic quality is prominent in “The Palanquin Bearers”?

A) Musical rhythm and melody
B) Harsh and angry tone
C) Philosophical debate
D) Use of historical references
Answer: A) Musical rhythm and melody

20. What is the overall message of the poem?

A) Work done with joy becomes an act of love and art
B) Hard work is always painful
C) Marriage is full of sorrow
D) Beauty fades with time
Answer: A) Work done with joy becomes an act of love and art

MCQ on Kamala Das’s “An Introduction”

1. Who is the poet of “An Introduction”?

A) Sarojini Naidu
B) Kamala Das
C) Toru Dutt
D) R. N. Tagore
Answer: B) Kamala Das

2. In which collection was “An Introduction” published?

A) The Descendants
B) Summer in Calcutta
C) The Old Playhouse and Other Poems
D) My Story
Answer: B) Summer in Calcutta

3. What is the main theme of Kamala Das’s “An Introduction”?

A) Patriotism and freedom
B) Identity, womanhood, and self-expression
C) Nature and beauty
D) Myth and religion
Answer: B) Identity, womanhood, and self-expression

4. What kind of poem is “An Introduction”?

A) Confessional poem
B) Epic poem
C) Romantic poem
D) Satirical poem
Answer: A) Confessional poem

5. What does Kamala Das assert about language in the poem?

A) She loves to write only in English
B) Language is a universal expression of self
C) Malayalam is superior to English
D) She rejects all languages
Answer: B) Language is a universal expression of self

6. What does the poet mean by “I am Indian, very brown, born in Malabar”?

A) She is proud of her identity and origin
B) She dislikes her nationality
C) She wishes to be Western
D) She hides her roots
Answer: A) She is proud of her identity and origin

7. What is the tone of the poem “An Introduction”?

A) Defiant and assertive
B) Humorous and light
C) Melancholic and nostalgic
D) Cold and detached
Answer: A) Defiant and assertive

8. What kind of issues does Kamala Das discuss in “An Introduction”?

A) Political and economic
B) Gender and social identity
C) Environmental
D) Historical
Answer: B) Gender and social identity

9. What does the poet protest against in “An Introduction”?

A) Political injustice
B) The restrictions placed on women by society
C) The destruction of nature
D) Religious intolerance
Answer: B) The restrictions placed on women by society

10. Which phrase reflects Kamala Das’s rebellion against social norms?

A) “I too call myself I”
B) “I am what I am”
C) “The world is mine”
D) “None but myself shall judge me”
Answer: A) “I too call myself I”

11. What does the poem “An Introduction” reveal about Kamala Das’s personality?

A) She is submissive and fearful
B) She is bold, honest, and self-aware
C) She is detached from society
D) She is indifferent to gender issues
Answer: B) She is bold, honest, and self-aware

12. What does the poet’s choice of English signify?

A) Her wish to imitate the West
B) Her freedom to express herself in any language
C) Her rejection of Indian heritage
D) Her dislike for her mother tongue
Answer: B) Her freedom to express herself in any language

13. What is the structure of the poem “An Introduction”?

A) Free verse with no rhyme scheme
B) Sonnet form
C) Rhymed couplets
D) Blank verse with meter
Answer: A) Free verse with no rhyme scheme

14. What social issue is highlighted in “An Introduction”?

A) Female identity and patriarchy
B) Poverty and hunger
C) Political corruption
D) Education reforms
Answer: A) Female identity and patriarchy

15. The poem “An Introduction” belongs to which literary movement?

A) Romanticism
B) Confessional poetry
C) Symbolism
D) Realism
Answer: B) Confessional poetry

16. What does Kamala Das challenge through her poem?

A) Male dominance and gender stereotypes
B) The power of poetry
C) Western influence on Indian culture
D) Economic inequality
Answer: A) Male dominance and gender stereotypes

17. What does the line “Dress in sarees, be girl / Be wife, they said” represent?

A) Society’s expectations of women
B) The poet’s love for fashion
C) Freedom of choice
D) A mythological reference
Answer: A) Society’s expectations of women

18. What kind of voice does Kamala Das use in “An Introduction”?

A) Personal and autobiographical
B) Historical and distant
C) Academic and formal
D) Dramatic and fictional
Answer: A) Personal and autobiographical

19. What does the poet seek in “An Introduction”?

A) Freedom to define herself
B) Fame and wealth
C) Love and admiration
D) Political power
Answer: A) Freedom to define herself

20. What is the central message of Kamala Das’s “An Introduction”?

A) Every woman has the right to speak, live, and love freely
B) Life should be spent in silence
C) Society must control women’s behavior
D) Only men can define truth
Answer: A) Every woman has the right to speak, live, and love freely

MCQ on Nissim Ezekiel's “The Night of the Scorpion” - Indian Poetry | STET, UGC NET

1. Who is the poet of “The Night of the Scorpion”?

A) Kamala Das
B) Nissim Ezekiel
C) R. N. Tagore
D) Sarojini Naidu
Answer: B) Nissim Ezekiel

2. What incident is described in “The Night of the Scorpion”?

A) A robbery in a village
B) A mother being stung by a scorpion
C) A storm destroying crops
D) A snake entering the house
Answer: B) A mother being stung by a scorpion

3. Where does the poem “The Night of the Scorpion” take place?

A) In a city apartment
B) In a rural Indian village
C) In a school classroom
D) In a temple
Answer: B) In a rural Indian village

4. Who narrates the poem “The Night of the Scorpion”?

A) The scorpion
B) The poet as a child
C) The mother
D) The father
Answer: B) The poet as a child

5. What is the reaction of the villagers when the mother is stung?

A) They take her to a hospital immediately
B) They pray, chant, and use superstitious methods
C) They ignore her suffering
D) They call the police
Answer: B) They pray, chant, and use superstitious methods

6. What do the villagers believe will happen if the scorpion moves?

A) The pain will increase
B) The poison will spread
C) The mother’s soul will leave her body
D) The poison will move with the scorpion
Answer: D) The poison will move with the scorpion

7. How long does the mother suffer from the sting?

A) A few minutes
B) Twenty hours
C) One hour
D) The entire night
Answer: B) Twenty hours

8. How is the father portrayed in the poem?

A) As a man of science using rational methods
B) As a believer in superstition
C) As indifferent to the event
D) As a frightened child
Answer: A) As a man of science using rational methods

9. What does the father do to help the mother?

A) Calls a doctor
B) Tries traditional cures and burns her toe with paraffin
C) Prays with the villagers
D) Ignores her pain
Answer: B) Tries traditional cures and burns her toe with paraffin

10. What does the poem mainly criticize?

A) Superstition and blind faith
B) Modern medicine
C) Urban life
D) Political systems
Answer: A) Superstition and blind faith

11. How does the poet describe the scorpion’s movement?

A) “Flash of lightning”
B) “Diabolic tail in the dark”
C) “Soft and silent crawl”
D) “Tiny creature of beauty”
Answer: B) “Diabolic tail in the dark”

12. What is the tone of the poem?

A) Ironical yet compassionate
B) Humorous and playful
C) Angry and violent
D) Cold and indifferent
Answer: A) Ironical yet compassionate

13. What emotion does the poet show toward the villagers?

A) Hatred
B) Pity and understanding
C) Admiration
D) Indifference
Answer: B) Pity and understanding

14. What is the final reaction of the mother after recovering?

A) She curses the scorpion
B) She thanks God for saving her
C) She expresses gratitude that her children were safe
D) She cries in pain
Answer: C) She expresses gratitude that her children were safe

15. What is the central theme of “The Night of the Scorpion”?

A) The power of maternal love
B) The cruelty of nature
C) The ignorance of the villagers
D) The beauty of village life
Answer: A) The power of maternal love

16. Which literary device is used in the line “The peasants came like swarms of flies”?

A) Metaphor
B) Simile
C) Personification
D) Alliteration
Answer: B) Simile

17. What contrast is highlighted in the poem?

A) Science versus superstition
B) Love versus hatred
C) Nature versus technology
D) Faith versus logic
Answer: A) Science versus superstition

18. What quality of the mother stands out in the poem?

A) Her strength and selflessness
B) Her ignorance
C) Her anger
D) Her silence
Answer: A) Her strength and selflessness

19. What poetic style does Nissim Ezekiel use in this poem?

A) Free verse with narrative tone
B) Rhymed couplets
C) Blank verse
D) Sonnet form
Answer: A) Free verse with narrative tone

20. What does “The Night of the Scorpion” ultimately celebrate?

A) A mother’s unconditional love and endurance
B) The triumph of superstition
C) The cruelty of nature
D) The power of darkness
Answer: A) A mother’s unconditional love and endurance

1.6 Indian Drama

History of Indian Drama and the following texts in English

a) Kalidasa - “Abhijanashakuntalam”

b) Shudraka - “Mrichhakatikam”

c) Vijay Tendulkar - “Silence! The Court is in Session”

d) Girish Karnard - “Hayavadana”

e) Mahesh Dattani - “Final Solutions”

Q: Which Indian English play was written by Vijay Tendulkar?
A) *Hayavadana*

B) *Silence! The Court is in Session*

C) *Final Solutions*

D) *Ghashiram Kotwal*
Answer: B) *Silence! The Court is in Session*

Q: *Hayavadana* was authored by:
A) Mahesh Dattani

B) Vijay Tendulkar

C) Girish Karnard

D) Badal Sircar
Answer: C) Girish Karnard

1.7 Indian Prose & Fiction

History of Indian English Prose and Fiction and the following texts:

Prescribed Essays:

a. R.N. Tagore - “The Spirit of Freedom”

b. Pandita Ramabai - “Widowhood”

c. Vivekanand - “India: Our Motherland”

d. M.K. Gandhi - “A Stain on India’s Forehead”

e. J L Nehru - “The Reawakening of India”

f. S.C. Bose - “Women’s Role in National Movement”

g. Rajendra Prasad - “Unity Amidst Diversity”

h. Salim Ali - “Man and Nature in India: The Ecological Balance”

i. Jai Prakash Narayan - “Nations, Nationalism and National Unity”

j. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam – “Work Brings Solace”

Prescribed Stories:

a. M.R. Anand - “The Barber’s Trade Union”

b. R.K. Narayan - “An Astrologer’s Day”

c. Ruskin Bond - “Thief”

d. Jhumpa Lahiri - “Sexy”

e. Shashi Deshpande - “Hear Me Sanjay”

f. Khushwant Singh - “The Voice of God”

g. Bhabani Bhattacharya - “Steel Hawk”

Q: Who wrote the essay 'What I Believe'*
A) A. G. Gardiner

B) E. M. Forster

C) Francis Bacon

D) R. K. Narayan
Answer: B) E. M. Forster

Q: 'An Astrologer’s Day' is a story by:
A) Ruskin Bond

B) R. K. Narayan

C) Shashi Deshpande

D) Jhumpa Lahiri
Answer: B) R. K. Narayan

1.8 American Literature

History of and the following texts:

Tennessee Williams - “The Glass Menagerie”
Toni Morrison - “Beloved”
Edgar Allan Poe: “The Purloined Letter”
O. Henry - “The Last Leaf”
F. Scott Fitzgerald – “The Crack-up”
William Faulkner – “Dry September”
Anne Bradstreet – “The Prologue”
Walt Whitman – “Selections from Leaves of Grass” :“O Captain, My Captain” and “Passage to India” (lines1–68)
Alexie Sherman Alexie – “Crow Testament”, “Evolution”
Robert Frost – “The Road Not Taken” and “Stopping by Woods on A Snowy Evening”

Q: Who wrote *The Glass Menagerie*?
A) Toni Morrison

B) Tennessee Williams

C) Arthur Miller

D) Eugene O’Neill
Answer: B) Tennessee Williams

Q: *The Last Leaf* is a short story by:
A) Edgar Allan Poe

B) O. Henry

C) William Faulkner

D) Mark Twain
Answer: B) O. Henry

1.9 Post-colonial Literature

Prescribed Essays:

R.N. Tagore - “The Spirit of Freedom”
Pandita Ramabai - “Widowhood”
Vivekanand - “India: Our Motherland”
M.K. Gandhi - “A Stain on India’s Forehead”
J L Nehru - “The Reawakening of India”
S.C. Bose - “Women’s Role in National Movement”
Rajendra Prasad - “Unity Amidst Diversity”
Salim Ali - “Man and Nature in India: The Ecological Balance”
Jai Prakash Narayan - “Nations, Nationalism and National Unity”
A.P.J. Abdul Kalam – “Work Brings Solace”

Prescribed Stories:

M.R. Anand - “The Barber’s Trade Union”
R.K. Narayan - “An Astrologer’s Day”
Ruskin Bond - “Thief”
Jhumpa Lahiri - “Sexy”
Shashi Deshpande - “Hear Me Sanjay”
Khushwant Singh - “The Voice of God”
Bhabani Bhattacharya - “Steel Hawk”

1. Introduction to Postcolonial Literature

The Beginning and The End of Colonial Era
Postcolonial Theory & Salient Features

2. Poetry

Pablo Neruda – “Tonight I can Write”’
Derek Walcott – “A Far Cry from Africa”
A. K Ramanujan – “The Striders”
Gabriel Okara – “Once upon a Time”
David Malouf – “Revolving Days”

3. Drama

Badal Sircar: ‘Indian History Made Easy’ in Two Plays: Indian History Made Easy, Life of Bagala, Oxford University Press, 2009.

4. Novel

Chinua Achebe - “Things Fall Apart”
Raja Rao – “Kanthapura”

Mulk Raj Anand's Barbar's Trade Union was published in the year __.

A. 1967

B. 1947

C. 1944

D. 1974

Answer: 1944

Who is the narrator of Mulk Raj Anand's short story 'Barbar's Trade Union's?

A. Chandu, the barber

B. A young unnamed boy

C. Kalam khan, the doctor

D. Vijay Chand, Chandu's father

Answer: an unnamed boy

Q: Which novel is a classic of postcolonial literature?

A) *Things Fall Apart*

B) *Pride and Prejudice*

C) *Murder in the Cathedral*

D) *Gone with the Wind*
Answer: A) *Things Fall Apart*

Q: *“A Far Cry from Africa”* is a poem by:
A) Pablo Neruda

B) Derek Walcott

C) A. K. Ramanujan

D) Gabriel Okara
Answer: B) Derek Walcott

1.10 Language & Linguistics

1. Language:

a) Definition and Features

b) Language varieties: Dialect, Register, Standard Language

c) Language Change: Old English, Middle English, Modern English.

2. Phonetics and Phonology: Organs of Speech,

Classification of Vowel and Consonant Sounds,

Phonemes, Syllables, Stress and Intonation

3. Morphology: Morphemes and Allomorphs, Word Formation.

4. Techniques of oral Practice in the Language Laboratory, Oral Drills:

Vowel sounds, Consonant Sounds, Stress, Intonation

Q: The study of the system and structure of language is called:
A) Phonology

B) Semantics

C) Linguistics

D) Stylistics
Answer: C) Linguistics

Q: Which is an example of a dialect variation?
A) Formal Standard English

B) Slang terms used in a region

C) Grammar rules

D) None
Answer: B) Slang terms used in a region

1.11 Grammar, Vocabulary & Literary Terms

Parts of Speech, Subject Verb Agreement, Time and Tense, Modal Auxiliaries, Voice, Narration,

Degree of Adjective, Question Tag, Common Errors, Antonyms, Synonyms, Idioms and Phrases,

Proverbs

LITERARY TERMS

The following terms:

Alliteration, Allegory, Anaphora, Allusion, Antithesis, Chiasmus, Hyperbole, Metaphor,

Onomatopoeia, Malapropism, Euphemism, Affective Fallacy, Intentional Fallacy, Irony, Litotes,

Pathetic Fallacy, Oxymoron, Personification, Synecdoche, Simile, Satire, Soliloquy, Zeugma

1.12 English Language Teaching (ELT)

1. Knowing the Learner

(a) Bloom’s Taxonomy

(b) Multiple intelligences (Gardneir’s Theory)

(d) Socio-economic, cultural and other contexts

(e) Learning and participation styles

(f) Advanced Approaches to teaching – Cooperative Learning,

Device Based Teaching Learning (IT Based).

2. Methods of teaching English Language and Literature

(a) Teaching & understanding of LSRW (Listening, Speaking, Reading, Writing)

(b) Teaching Vocabulary

(d) Teaching Poetry

(e) Teaching Prose

(f) Lesson Planning

3. Assessing Language Skills

(a) Error Identification and Correction

(b) Language Proficiency

4. Using Technology in Language Teaching

(a) Introduction to ICT

(b) Use of ICT

Q: What are the “LSRW” skills?
A) Listening, Speaking, Reading, Writing

B) Logic, Syntax, Reading, Writing

C) Language, Speaking, Reading, Writing

D) Listening, Speaking, Reading, Writing
Answer: A) Listening, Speaking, Reading, Writing

Q: Bloom’s taxonomy is used in teaching to classify:
A) Literary works

B) Types of tests

C) Educational objectives

D) Language varieties
Answer: C) Educational objectives

1.13 Contemporary Criticism & Literary Theory

New Criticism, Psychoanalytical Criticism , Colonialism, Postcolonialism, Marxism, Feminism,

Structuralism, Post Structuralism, New Historicism, Ecocriticism ,Ecofeminism,

Post Modernism

Q: Which theory focuses on class struggle, power, and ideology?
A) Structuralism

B) Marxism

C) New Criticism

D) Feminism
Answer: B) Marxism

Q: Poststructuralism is often associated with which idea?
A) Fixed meaning

B) Deconstruction

C) Author’s intention

D) Historical criticism
Answer: B) Deconstruction

1.14 Literature of the Marginalised

Dalit Literature-

Bama- “Karakku”
Omprakash Valmiki - “Joothan”

Tribal Literature –

Mamang Dai – “The Black Hill”
Temsula Ao - “Laburnum for My Head”

African-American Literature –

Alice Walker – “The Color Purple”
Ralph Ellison – “Invisible Man”

Q: *Karakku* is a work in which literary tradition?
A) Tribal Literature

B) Dalit Literature

C) African Literature

D) Feminist Literature
Answer: B) Dalit Literature

Q: *Invisible Man* is by which African American author?
A) Ralph Ellison

B) Toni Morrison

C) Alice Walker

D) Langston Hughes
Answer: A) Ralph Ellison

Unit II: Art of Teaching & Other Skills (50 Marks)

2.1 Art of Teaching

1. Teaching & Learning:- Meaning, Process & Characteristics.

2. Teaching Objectives and Instructional objectives: Meaning & Types, Blooms

Taxonomy.

3. Teaching Methods: - Types and its Characteristics, Merit, and demerits of Methods.

4. Lesson Plan: - Types and Format & Various Model.

5. Microteaching & Instructional analysis.

6. Effective ecosystem of Classroom.

7. Textbook and library

8. Qualities of Teacher.

9. Evaluation & Assessment for learning.

10. Curriculum.

11. Factors affecting teaching and learning.

12. Teaching Aids and Hands on learning.

Q: What is microteaching?
A) Teaching to a large class

B) Teaching a short lesson to a small group for feedback

C) Teaching with technology only

D) Teaching grammar only
Answer: B) Teaching a short lesson to a small group for feedback

Q: A lesson plan includes:
A) Objectives, content, methods, evaluation

B) Just content

C) Only evaluation

D) Only objectives
Answer: A) Objectives, content, methods, evaluation

2.2 Other Skills

1. General Knowledge,

2.Environmental Science

3. Mathematical aptitude,

4.logical Reasoning

FAQ: MCQ Guide for Bihar STET — English Paper II

Common questions and short answers taken from the MCQ Guide for Bihar STET (English Paper II).

It is the examination for candidates who wish to teach English at the secondary level in Bihar. The paper tests language proficiency, literature knowledge, and pedagogical skills relevant to teaching classes 10–12.

The guide is organised into two core parts:

Unit I — Subject English (100 marks): British, Indian & world literature, grammar, vocabulary, literary terms, ELT, theory & criticism.
Unit II — Art of Teaching & Other Skills (50 marks): pedagogy, classroom strategies, assessment, and teaching methods.

The guide lists several canonical poems such as works by Spenser, Shakespeare (selected sonnets), John Donne, William Blake, Keats, Yeats and T. S. Eliot (for example: "The Hollow Men").

The guide is MCQ-focused: each question has four options with the correct answer provided. Questions cover authorship, themes, form, literary devices, grammar and pedagogical scenarios.

It also covers British drama, British prose and fiction, Indian literature, language & linguistics, ELT methods, literary criticism, and classroom assessment & pedagogy.

Poetry is arranged by poet and by poem. For each poem there are targeted MCQs on authorship, theme, tone, form, imagery and important lines — useful for quick revision.

Yes — it is designed to match the syllabus and objective-style question patterns commonly used in teacher eligibility tests such as STET, TET and SET, especially for English literature and pedagogy.

Source: literaturehub.in — MCQ Guide for Bihar STET (English Paper II)

MCQ Australian Writers in English Literature

2025-06-02T12:34:00.013+05:30

MCQ on Australian Literature in English

MCQs on Australian Literature in English — explore key literary figures, movements, and texts with multiple choice questions and answers for quick revision.

Australian Literature in English MCQ

📚 Table of Contents

What is Australian Literature?
Famous Australian Writers in English
MCQ on Australian Literature in English

What is Australian Literature?

Australian literature means the any piece of literary works written by Australian writers in English. In other words, Australian Literature is a work which is produced in Australia by the Australian writers.

Famous Australian Writers in English

C. 2004

D. 2006

The Australian novelist, Thomas Keneally, got the Booker Prize for which of the following work?

A. An Angel in Australia

B. The Devil's Playground

C. Schindler's Arc

D. The Chant of Tummie Blacksmith

Check Also

MCQ on American Literature

MCQ on Indian Literature

MCQ on German Literature

MCQ on Canadian Literature

The Australian novelist, Thomas Keneally's booker prize winning novel 'Schindler's Arc' was dedicated to____.

A. Joan of Arc

B. Poldek Pfefferberg

C. Patrick White

D. Geraldine Brooks

Which among the following works by the Australian novelist, David Malouf, won the Miles Franklin literary Award in 1990?

A. Flay Away Peter

B. Ransom

C. The Great World

D. Johnno

In which work by Henry Lawson we find the depiction of 'blackness and loneliness' ?

A. While the Billy Boils

B. A Song of Republic

C. The Dover's Wife

D. Golden Gully

Henry Lawson's first published poem A Song of Republic appeared in the Bulletin Australian Magazine in the year ____ .

A. 1878

B. 1987

C. 1907

D. 1887

Which among the following works by Banjo Paterson is considered as "unofficial national anthem of Australia" ?

A. The Man from Snowy River

B. Waltzing Matilda

C. Clancy of the Overflow

D. The Bulletin

Which among the followings are the two novels by Australian author Banjo Paterson ?

A. An Outback Marriage

B. The Animals Noah Forgot

C. Clancy of the Overflow

D. The Shearer's Colt

1. A and B

2. B and D

3. C and D

4. A and D

Who among the following Australian writers received the Miles Franklin Award three times for his literary works?

A. Thomas Keneally

B. Peter Carey

C. Patrick White

D. Banjo Paterson

Who among the following writers have not played a significant role in the Australian Aboriginal Movements?

A. Judith Wright

B. Oodgeroo Noonuccal

C. Jack Davis

D. David Malouf

Ans. A

Cultural Studies MCQ

2025-05-19T20:13:00.009+05:30

Cultural Studies MCQ | UGC NET

Cultural Studies Multiple Choice Questions with Answers for UGC NET

What is the full form of CCCS ?

A. The Centre for Contemporary Community Studies

B. The Centre for Common Cultural Studies

C. The Centre for Contemporary Cultural Studies

D. The Centre of Common Culture and School

Ans. C

Centre for Contemporary Cultural Studies (CCCS): Founded in which country?

A. Germany

B. Italy

C. United States

D. United Kingdom

Ans. A

Most important terms, concept and theory in Cultural Studies:

Stuart Hall -

Reception Theory (Encoding/Decoding
Thatcherism
Circuit of Culture
Four Media Processes
New Ethnicities
Cultural Identity and Diaspora

Raymond Williams -

Culture is a “whole way of life.”
“Culture is ordinary”
Cultural Materialism
Dominant, Residual, and Emergent Cultures
Structure of Feeling
Selective Tradition

The Centre for Contemporary Cultural Studies (CCCS) was a research centre founded at which one of the following universities?

A. University of Birmingham

B. University of Cambridge

C. University of Frankfurt

D. Bowling Green State University

Ans. A

In which year The Centre for Contemporary Cultural Studies (CCCS) was founded?

A. 1946

B. 1964

C. 1968

D. 1948

Ans. B

Course in General Linguistics (1915) is a book written by:

(A) Ferdinand de Saussure

(B) Sigmund Freud

(D) Jacques Lacan

Ans. A

Who founded The Cultural Studies research centre CCCS ?

A. Stephen greenbelt

B. Antonio Gramsci

C. Stuart Hall

D. Richard Hoggart

Ans. A

Key Thinkers of Cultural Studies :

Richard Hoggart– Founder; The Uses of Literacy; focused on working-class culture.
Stuart Hall– Director (1968–79); central to race, identity, representation, encoding/decoding theory.
Paul Willis– Learning to Labour; working-class youth subcultures.
Angela McRobbie– Gender, media, youth, feminism.
Dick Hebdige– Subculture: The Meaning of Style; explored punk culture.
Lawrence Grossberg– Later member; worked on postmodernism and U.S. cultural theory.

Who coined the term cultural poetics ?

A. Stuart hall

B. Thompson

C. Julton Steewart

D. Stephen greenbelt

Ans. D

Who coined the term "Cultural Studies"?

A) Raymond Williams

B) Stuart Hall

C) Edward Said

D) Michel Foucault

Ans. B

In which of the following works Raymond Williams gave the three difinitions of culture?

A. Culture and Society (1958)

B. The Long Revolution (1961)

C. Country and the City (1973)

D. Keywords – Vocabulary of Culture & Society (1976)

Ans. B

According to Stuart Hall, what are the two paradigms within cultural studies?

A. Functionalism and Conflict Theory

B. Marxism and Liberalism

C. The Birmingham School and Structuralism/Poststructuralism

D. Realism and Postmodernism

Ans. C

2. What does the Birmingham School primarily emphasize?

a) Artistic expression and individual creativity

b) Language and grammar analysis

c) The role of culture in class struggle and social change

d) Psychological development through media

Ans. A

3. Which theoretical influences shaped the Birmingham School?

A. Psychoanalysis and behaviorism

B. Marxist theory and sociology

C. Structuralism and feminism

D. Existentialism and surrealism

Ans. B

4. What key idea is associated with Michel Foucault in "The Archaeology of Knowledge"?

A. Power operates through discourses and systems of knowledge

B. Class struggle defines all historical progress

C. Language mirrors reality

D. Media creates cultural consensus

Ans. A

5. What areas do cultural studies analyze?

A. Only media and entertainment

B. Cultural practices in relation to everyday life, history, politics, power, ideology, technology, economics, and environment

C. The rise and fall of civilizations

D. Ancient languages and myths

Ans. B

6. Which two schools are credited with shaping the intellectual foundations of cultural studies?

a) Yale and Oxford

B. The Frankfurt and the Birmingham school

C. The Paris School and the Chicago School

D. Columbia University and the London School of Economics

Ans. B

7. Where and when was the Frankfurt School established?

a) Germany in the early 20th century

b) France in the 18th century

c) Britain in the 1960s

d) United States in the 1950s

Ans. A

Who set up the Birmingham Centre for Cultural Studies?

A- Richard Hoggart

B- Stuart Hall

C- Anthony Burgess

D- Raymond Williams

Ans. A

The term ethnocentricity is originally coined by the American sociologist

A. William Graham Sumner

B. Lester Frank Ward

C. Albion Woodbury Small

D. Jane Addams

Important terms in Cultural Studies

‘Oedipus complex’

'Discourse'

'ideology'

Which among the followings is NOT a work of Ronald Barthes

A. 'The Death of the Author'

B. Writing Degree Zero

C. The Fashion System

D. Culture and society

Ans. D

'Discourse in the Novel' is an influential essay in cultural studies is written by

A. Althusser

B. Reynold Williams

C. Bakhtin

D. Barthes

Ans. C

Who coined the term "cultural materialism"?

A. Terry Eagleton

B. Raymond Williams

C. Stuart Hall

D. Michel Foucault

Ans. B

Which of the following works is not considered a precursor of modern cultural studies?

A. Mythologies by Roland Barthes

B. Culture and Society by Raymond Williams

C. The Uses of Literacy by Richard Hoggart

D. Orientalism by Edward Said

Ans. D

In his work "Cultural Studies: Two Paradigms," what are the two paradigms discussed by Stuart Hall?

A. Marxism and Postmodernism

B. Realism and Idealism

C. Culturalism and Structuralism

D. Functionalism and Symbolism

Ans. C

Online Application for UGC-NET June 2025 Started | Know the exam dates

2025-04-16T22:47:00.005+05:30

UGC NET December 2025: Exam Dates, Application, Syllabus & Preparation Tips

The University Grants Commission National Eligibility Test (UGC NET) is a national-level examination conducted by the National Testing Agency (NTA) to determine the eligibility of candidates for Assistant Professor, Junior Research Fellowship (JRF) and `Admission to Ph.D. only` in Indian universities and colleges. The UGC NET December 2025 cycle is around the corner, and aspirants must gear up with the latest updates, syllabus, and strategies to ace the exam.

The National Testing Agency (NTA) will conduct UGC-NET Decembre 2026 for 85 subjects in Computer Based Test (CBT) mode.

📑 Table of Contents

UGC NET December 2025 Overview

Exam Name: UGC NET (University Grants Commission National Eligibility Test)
Conducting Body: National Testing Agency (NTA)
Purpose: Admission to Ph.D. in Indian universities, Eligibility for Assistant Professor and Junior Research Fellowship (JRF)
Frequency: Twice a year (June & December)
Mode of Exam: Online (Computer-Based Test)
Official Website: ugcnet.nta.nic.in

Important Dates for UGC NET Dec- 2025

Submission of Online Application Form	16th Oct to 7th Nov. (Expected)
Last Date for submission of Examination fee	To be announced soon
Correction in the Particulars in Application Form	to be announced soon
Announcement of City Exam Centre	To be intimated later
Downloading of Admit Card from NTA Website	To be intimated later
Date of Examination (Tentative)	21st December 2025 to 10 January 2026
Application Fee	General/Unreserved : Rs. 1150 EWS/OBC-NCL : Rs. 600 SC/ST/PwD/ Third Gender: Rs. 325
Display of Answer Key	To be announced later
NTA Website	https://ugcnet.nta.ac.in

Eligibility Criteria

Educational Qualification: Master’s degree with at least 55% marks (50% for reserved categories).

Age Limit:

JRF: Not more than 30 years (relaxation applicable for reserved categories).
Assistant Professor: No upper age limit.
Admission for Ph.D. only (works for one year only)

UGC NET December 2025 Application Process

Visit ugcnet.nta.nic.in
Register using your email and mobile number.
Fill out the application form with academic and personal details.
Upload scanned images of your photo and signature.
Pay the application fee via online payment methods.
Download and print the confirmation page.

Application Fee:

Category	Fee (Expected)
General	₹1100
EWS/OBC-NCL	₹600
SC/ST/PwD	₹325

Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

Paper	Marks	No. of Questions	Duration
Paper I (Teaching & Research Aptitude)	100	50	3 Hours (Combined)
Paper II (Subject Specific)	200	100

No negative marking.
All questions are compulsory.

Syllabus and Subject List

Paper I: Teaching Aptitude, Research Aptitude, Comprehension, Communication, Reasoning, DI, Higher Education, and ICT.
Paper II: Based on the subject selected by the candidate (e.g., English, Commerce, Management, etc.).

👉 Download the full UGC NET Syllabus PDF

Best Preparation Tips for UGC NET 2025

Understand the Exam Pattern: Know the structure and marking scheme.
Make a Study Plan: Allocate time for each topic based on your strengths and weaknesses.
Use Standard Books: Refer to recommended books and online resources.
Practice Previous Year Papers: Familiarize yourself with the type of questions.
Take Mock Tests: Improve speed, accuracy, and time management.
Revise Regularly: Keep revisiting important concepts and facts.

Books and Study Materials

Paper I:

Trueman’s UGC NET Paper 1
KVS Madaan Paper 1 Guide
Arihant UGC NET Paper 1

Paper II (Subject-Specific):

Follow NCERT + post-graduation books.
Use NTA's official syllabus and PYQs.

FAQs

Q1. When will UGC NET June 2025 be conducted?
A: The exam is expected in the third or fourth week of June 2025.

Q2. Can I apply for both JRF and Assistant Professor?
A: Yes, candidates can apply for both.

Q3. Is there negative marking in UGC NET?
A: No, there is no negative marking.

Q4. How many times can I attempt UGC NET?
A: Unlimited attempts for Assistant Professor; JRF has an age limit.

For latest updates, keep visiting the official UGC NET website.

If you are preparing for UGC NET June 2025 (English Subject) the following posts will be very much helpful

See the topic-wise list of posts and pages from Literature Hub

📚 English Literature – Period-Wise MCQs

Old English Period
Middle English Period
- Top 50 MCQs on Middle English Period
Restoration Age
- MCQs on Restoration Period for UGC, UGB, CBCS, NET SET JRF
- Dramatists of the Restoration Age (Best for MCQs and General Theme)
Romantic Period
Victorian Age
- MCQ on Victorian Age
Modern & Postmodern Periods
- MCQ on The Modern & The Post Modern Periods in English Literature - Modern Age

📝 Quizzes & Mock Tests

📘 Study Materials & Resources

Apply Bihar STET 2025: Complete Guide, Exam Pattern, Eligibility and Syllabus

2025-04-14T22:48:00.026+05:30

Bihar STET 2025: Complete Guide, Exam Pattern, Eligibility, and Preparation Tips

What is Bihar STET?

The Bihar Secondary Teacher Eligibility Test (Bihar STET) is a state-level examination conducted by the Bihar School Examination Board (BSEB). It is the gateway for candidates aspiring to become secondary (classes 9–10) and senior secondary (classes 11–12) school teachers in government schools across Bihar.

Clearing the Bihar STET 2025 will certify candidates as eligible teachers, opening up numerous job opportunities in the teaching sector.

Bihar STET 2025: Important Dates:

Bihar STET 2025: Important Dates
Event	Date (Tentative)
Official Notification Release	8 September 2025
Application Start Date	16 Sep- 2025
Last Date to Apply	5th Octuber 2025
Admit Card Release	August 2025
Exam Date	September 2025
Result Declaration	October 2025

Note: Keep an eye on the official Bihar STET website for the latest updates.

The submission of online application for Bihar STET 2025 has been extended to 5th Octuber 2025

✅ Bihar STET 2025 Official Syllabus PDF

✅ Bihar STET Paper I Syllabus

✅ Bihar STET Paper II Syllabus

📚 Explore More Posts

Bihar STET Eligibility Criteria

Before applying, candidates must ensure they meet the following eligibility criteria for Bihar STET 2025:

Educational Qualification:

Paper I (Secondary Teacher): Bachelor's degree in the relevant subjects like Hindi, Urdu, English, Math or any other subjects with B.Ed. degree compulsorily.

Paper II (Senior Secondary Teacher): Postgraduate degree in the relevant subject with B.Ed.

Age Limit:

Minimum: 21 years
Maximum: 37 years (Age relaxation applies for reserved categories)

Bihar STET Exam Pattern 2025

Understanding the Bihar STET exam pattern is crucial for effective preparation.

Paper I: Secondary Level

Paper I: Secondary Level
Subject	Questions	Marks
Specific Subject	100	100
Teaching & Other Abilities.	50	50
Total	150	150

Duration: 2.5 Hours
Type: Objective (MCQs)

Paper II (Senior Secondary Level
Subject	Questions	Marks
Specific Subject	100	100
Teaching & Other Abilities	50	50
Total	150	150

Duration: 2.5 Hours
Type: Objective (MCQs)

Bihar STET Syllabus 2025

The Bihar STET syllabus covers both the core subject knowledge and teaching abilities.

Core Subjects

English
Hindi
Mathematics
Science
Social Science
Physical Education
Computer Science
Others

Teaching Abilities

For detailed syllabus, refer to the official Bihar STET notification.

Teaching Abilities and Pedagogy

Teaching & Learning: - Meaning, Process & Characteristics.
Teaching Objectives and Instructional objectives: Meaning & Types, Blooms Taxonomy.
Teaching Methods: - Types and its Characteristics, Merit, and demerits of Methods.
Lesson Plan: - Types and Format & Various Model.
Micro-teaching & Instructional analysis.
Effective ecosystem of Classroom.
Textbook and library
Qualities of Teacher.
Evaluation & Assessment for learning.
Curriculum.
Factors affecting teaching and learning.
Teaching Aids and Hands on learning.

✅ Bihar STET 2025 Official Syllabus PDF
✅ Bihar STET Paper I Syllabus
✅ Bihar STET Paper II Syllabus

How to Apply for Bihar STET 2025?

Follow these steps to apply STET 2025 successfully:

Visit the official BSEB STET website.
Register with your email ID and mobile number.
Fill in the application form with correct details.
Upload the required documents (photo, signature, educational certificates).
Pay the application fee:

General/OBC: ₹960 per paper (for both paper 1440)
SC/ST/PwD: ₹760 per paper (for both paper 1140)

Note- Submit the application form and take a printout for future reference.

Bihar STET Previous Question Paper

Solving previous years' Bihar STET question papers is one of the best ways to understand the exam pattern and improve your accuracy!

Bihar STET Previous Year Question Papers: Download Links

Bihar STET Previous Question Paper
YEAR	PAPER I	PAPER II
Bihar STET Question Paper 2024	Download Paper I PDF	Download Paper II PDF
Bihar STET Question Paper 2023	Download Paper I PDF	Download Paper II PDF
Bihar STET Question Paper 2022	Download Paper I PDF	Download Paper II PDF
Bihar STET Question Paper 2021	Download Paper I PDF	Download Paper II PDF
Bihar STET Question Paper 2020	Download Paper I PDF	Download Paper II PDF

Benefits of Practicing Bihar STET Previous Papers:

Understand exam trends
Improve time management
Boost confidence before the exam
Identify frequently asked topics

Bihar STET Preparation Tips:

Understand the Syllabus: Go through the Bihar STET syllabus thoroughly.
Create a Study Plan: Allocate time for each subject and stick to the schedule.
Practice Previous Papers: Solve past Bihar STET question papers to understand the pattern.
Mock Tests: Regularly take online mock tests to improve speed and accuracy.
Revise Regularly: Frequent revisions help in retaining concepts better.
Stay Updated: Keep checking the official Bihar STET website for any changes.

📚 Bihar STET 2025 Study Materials (With Hyperlinks)

1. Official Syllabus PDFs

✅ Bihar STET 2025 Official Syllabus PDF
✅ Bihar STET Paper I Syllabus
✅ Bihar STET Paper II Syllabus

2. Recommended Books

📖 Arihant Bihar STET Teacher Eligibility Test Paper 1 & 2
📖 Youth Competition Times – Bihar STET Guide
📖 Kiran’s Bihar STET Solved Papers

3. Free Online Notes & Mock Tests

📝 Testbook Bihar STET Free Notes & Mock Test
📝 GradeUp Bihar STET Preparation
📝 Adda247 Bihar STET Quiz & Notes

🎥 Bihar STET YouTube Video Playlists

Bihar STET Preparation Playlists (Free)

📺 Study IQ Education – Bihar STET Playlist
📺 Wifistudy – Bihar STET Classes
📺 Adda247 Teachers – Bihar STET Marathon Sessions
📺 Bihar STET Classes
📺 Teachers Adda247 Bihar STET Pedagogy Special
Bihar STET Social Science Classes by Sachin Sir
Bihar STET Teaching Aptitude by Himani Mallik

Conclusion

Clearing Bihar STET 2025 can pave the way for a rewarding teaching career in Bihar’s government schools. With the right preparation strategy and understanding of the exam pattern and syllabus, you can crack the exam confidently. Stay motivated, stay focused, and start your preparation today!

Pro Tip: Subscribe to our blog for the latest Bihar STET updates, exam tips, and more!

Frequently Asked Questions

Bihar STET is a teacher eligibility test for secondary and senior secondary levels conducted by BSEB.

The Bihar School Examination Board (BSEB) conducts the exam.

Minimum age is 21; upper age is 37 (relaxations apply).

What is Bihar STET?

Bihar STET is a teacher eligibility test for secondary and senior secondary levels conducted by BSEB. Learn more

Who conducts Bihar STET?

The Bihar School Examination Board (BSEB) conducts the exam. More info

When will Bihar STET 2025 applications open?

Applications are expected to open in June 2025. Check updates

What is the last date to apply for Bihar STET 2025?

The last date is expected to be in July 2025. See full timeline

What is the eligibility for Paper I?

Bachelor’s degree in a relevant subject and B.Ed. qualification. Read details

What is the eligibility for Paper II?

Master’s degree in a relevant subject and B.Ed. qualification. More info here

What is the age limit for Bihar STET 2025?

Minimum age is 21; upper age is 37 (relaxations apply). Check full criteria

What is the exam pattern?

150 MCQs in 2.5 hours: 100 subject + 50 pedagogy. Pattern breakdown

What subjects are available in STET?

Subjects include Hindi, English, Math, Science, Social Science, etc. List of subjects

Is there any negative marking?

No, there is no negative marking. See marking scheme

What is the syllabus for teaching ability?

Includes pedagogy, child psychology, methodology, etc. Full syllabus

How can I apply for Bihar STET?

Apply online via BSEB website. Apply here

What is the application fee?

Fee varies by category, generally Rs. 500–Rs. 800. Check fee chart

Can I apply for both papers?

Yes, if you meet eligibility for both. Eligibility details

Is STET required for private schools?

No, it’s only mandatory for government school recruitment. More info

How do I download the admit card?

Download from the official website using login credentials. Admit card link

What documents are needed at the exam center?

Admit card and a valid photo ID are mandatory. See checklist

How is the result declared?

Results are published online on the BSEB portal. Check result info

English Literature MCQs: Period-Wise Guide from Old English to Modern Era (With Answers)

2025-04-13T20:29:00.008+05:30

A Period-wise Guide to English Literature MCQs

For Students and Literature Enthusiasts

Table of Contents

Introduction

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) are a quick and effective way to assess knowledge in English literature. Whether you’re preparing for UGC NET- JUNE 2025, STET, SET, GATE, competitive exams, university tests, or just brushing up on your literary history, understanding the major periods and their characteristics is essential. Let’s break down these periods and explore typical MCQs that may come your way.

Old English Period (450–1066)

Overview

Also known as the Anglo-Saxon Period.
Dominated by epic poetry, religious verse, and heroic tales.
Beowulf is the most celebrated work.

English Literature MCQs | Old English Period

Q1. Who is the hero of the Old English epic Beowulf?
A) Grendel
B) Hrothgar
C) Beowulf
D) Wiglaf
Answer: C) Beowulf

Q2. The Old English period ended with which historical event?
A) Norman Conquest
B) The Great Fire of London
C) Battle of Hastings
D) Signing of the Magna Carta
Answer: C) Battle of Hastings

Q3. When did Augustine arrived in Britain?

A) 549 A.D.
B) 597 A.D.
C) 759 A.D.
D) 571 A.D.
Answer: B) 597 A.D.

Q4. Which Anglo-Saxon poem celebrates defeat in war ?

A) Judith
B) The Phoenix
C) 'The Battle of Maldon'
D) The Owl and the Nightingale

Answer: C)

Q5. The Old English poem "The Owl and the Nightingale' is attributed to-

A) Thomas Dales
B) Wulfstan
C) Beowulf
D) Nicholas de Guildford
Answer: D)

Q6. In which Anglo-Saxon poem is a female warrior the protagonist? who is the poet?

A) Judith
B) The Phoenix
C) 'The Battle of Maldon'
D) The Owl and the Nightingale

Answer: A)

Q7. When did the Norman conquest take place?

A) 1016
B) 1066
C) 1600
D) 1060
Answer: B)

Q8. Who is the last Anglo-Saxon king ?

Answer: Harold who died at Battle of Hasting in 1066.

For more Old English Literature MCQs CLICK HERE

Restoration Period (1660–1700)

Overview

Marked by the restoration of the monarchy under Charles II.
Satirical comedies and heroic dramas flourished.
Notable writers: John Dryden, Aphra Behn, William Congreve, George Etherege, Samuel Butler, John Bunyan, Samuel Pepys etc.

English Literature MCQs | Restoration Period

Q1. Who is known as the father of English criticism and prominent Restoration poet?
A) John Milton
B) John Dryden
C) Alexander Pope
D) Samuel Johnson
Answer: B) John Dryden

Q2. Which of these is a typical Restoration genre?
A) Comedy of Manners
B) Romantic Epic
C) Mystery Novel
D) Gothic Fiction
Answer: A) Comedy of Manners

📚 Explore More Posts

MCQ Quiz Mock Test

MCQ on English Literature | Period Wise

Old English Middle English Restoration Age Romantic Age Victorian Age Modern Age Post-Modern Age Quotations

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Neo-Classical Period (1660–1798)

Overview

Valued order, decorum, and reason.
Influenced by classical Greek and Roman texts.
Major figures: Alexander Pope, Jonathan Swift, Daniel Defoe, Joseph Addison, Richard Steel, Edward Young etc.

English Literature MCQs | Neo-Classical Period

Q1. Which writer is associated with The Rape of the Lock?
A) Samuel Johnson
B) Alexander Pope
C) William Blake
D) Thomas Gray
Answer: B) Alexander Pope

Q2. The Neo-Classical period emphasized:
A) Emotion
B) Nature
C) Reason and Order
D) Mysticism
Answer: C) Reason and Order

Q3.The first phase of industrial revolution was -

A) 1750-1850
B) 1660-1700
C) 1700-1785
D) 1785-1838
Answer: A) 1750-1850

Q4.The peterloo massacre took place -

A) 1719, Aug 16
B) 1819, Aug 16
C) 1819, Aug 18
D) 1719, Aug 18

Answer: B) 1819, Aug 16

Q5. The author of "The marriage of Heaven and Hell" and 'The Book of Thell' is ____.

a. Wordsworth
b. Robert Burns
c. Blake
d. Thomas Gray
Answer: A) William Blake

Q6.How many poems were included in the first publication of "Lyrical Ballads"-

A) 32 Poems
B) 19 Poems
C) 18 Poems
D) 23 Poems
Answer: D) 23 Poems

Q7. "The Lyrical Ballads" opens with -

A) Kubla Khan
B) The Prelude
C) The Rime of Ancient Mariner
D) Tintern Abbey

Answer: C) The Rime of Ancient Mariner

Q8. Who wrote the poem "Thalaba"-

A) Wordsworth
B) S. T. Coleridge
C) P. B. Shelley
D) Southey
Answer: D)Southey

Q9. Which poem begins with the famous line "A thing of beauty is a joy for ever"-

a. Tintern abbey
b. Endymion
c. Adonais
d. Kabla khan
Answer: Endymion

Q10. Who wrote "Luci" poems -

a. Wordsworth
b. Southey
c. Scott.
d. Donne
Answer: Wordsworth

Q11. Who brought the concept of 'Negative Capability'-

a. Wordsworth
b. Coleridge
c. Keats
d. Shelley
Answer: Keats

Q12. Shelley was expelled from the Oxford University due to the publication of -

a. The revolt of Islam
b. Necessity of Atheism
c. The triumph of life
d. The mosque of Anarchy

Answer: Necessity of Atheism

Q13. Edward Gibbon was the first historian of England who wrote in a literary manner. His greatest historical work is _______.

A. Lives of Poet
B. The Decline of the Roman Empire
C. The Village
D. The Rambler
Answer:. The Decline of the Roman Empire

Q14. The Royal Society established in England in _____.

A) 1660
B) 1662
C) 1558
D) 1559

Answer: 1662

Q15. The dramatic literature of Eighteenth century was not of a high order. One of the reasons of the decline of drama during this period was ____

A) The death of Queen Anne in 1714
B) American Revolution in 1775-1783
C) Act of Licensing in 1737
D) Beginning of Seven Years War in 1756.

Answer: Act of Licensing in 1737

Q16. Who among the followings becomes the first Hanoverian king in 1714?

A) William III
B) James II
C) George I
D) George II
Answer: George I

Q17. George III succeeded the throne in ___.

A) 1727
B) 1714
C) 1702
D) 1760

Answer: 1760

The Age of Johnson (1740–1790)

Overview

Named after Samuel Johnson, famous for his dictionary.
Transitional phase between Neo-Classical and Romanticism.
Themes of morality, reflection, and urban life.

English Literature MCQs | The Age of Johnson

Q1. Samuel Johnson is best known for:
A) Writing Pamela
B) Compiling an English dictionary
C) Discovering Shakespeare's plays
D) Translating The Aeneid
Answer: B) Compiling an English dictionary

Q2. Lives of the Poets was written by:
A) Alexander Pope
B) John Dryden
C) Samuel Johnson
D) Thomas Gray
Answer: C) Samuel Johnson

Age of Romanticism (1798–1837)

Overview

Emphasized emotion, nature, and individualism.
Notable poets: Wordsworth, Coleridge, Byron, Shelley, Keats.

English Literature MCQs | Age of Romanticism

Q1. Lyrical Ballads is associated with which poets?
A) Wordsworth and Coleridge
B) Byron and Shelley
C) Keats and Byron
D) Blake and Wordsworth
Answer: A) Wordsworth and Coleridge

Q2. Which of the following is a theme of Romanticism?
A) Industrialization
B) Scientific progress
C) Nature and Emotion
D) Urbanization
Answer: C) Nature and Emotion

Victorian Period (1837–1901)

Overview

Named after Queen Victoria.
Literature focused on social issues, industrialization, and morality.
Famous writers: Charles Dickens, the Brontë sisters, Thomas Hardy, Elizabeth Barret Browning, Lord Alfred Tennyson, Robert Browning, George Eliot, W. M. Thackeray etc.

Q20. 'Vanity Fair', which subtitled 'A Novel Without a Hero', is a satirical novel of manners. The title of the novel is derived from __

a) Dryden's 'An Essay oF Dramatic Poesy
b) Samuel Butler's 'Hudibras'
c) John Banyan's 'Pilgrim`s Progress'
d) Chaucer's 'Book of the Duchess'

Answer: C

Q21. Who is the author of The Blessed Damozel ?

(a) Christina Rossetti
(b) D.G.Rossetti
(c) Morris
(d) Swinburne
Answer: B

Q22. Aurora Leigh was written by_

(a) D. G. Rossetti
(b) Elizabeth Barret Browning
(c) Anne Bronte
(d) Robert Browning
Answer: B

Q23. Among the following who was appointed as private secretary to Lord Lansdowne in 1847?

A. Mathew Arnold
B. Robert Browning
C. Tennyson
D. Elizabeth Barrett Browning
Answer: A

Q24. In which year Arnold was appointed as 'Professor of Poetry' at Oxford ?

A. 1856
B. 1857
C. 1858
D. 1859
Answer: B

Who wrote the biography 'Queen Victoria' ?

A. John Keats

B. James Boswell

C. Walter Scott

D. Lytton Strachey

Answer: D

Get the list of Victorian Writers and their literary works in English Literature Click Here

Modern Period (1901–1945)

Overview

Marked by experimentation in style and form.
Major themes: alienation, existentialism, disillusionment.
Key writers: T.S. Eliot, James Joyce, Virginia Woolf.

English Literature MCQs | Modern Period

Important Writers in Modern Age:

Robert Bridges (1844-1930)
George Bernard Shaw (1856-1950)
W.B. Yeats (1865-1939)
John Galsworthy (1867-1933)
George Moore (1857-1933)
George Gissing (1857-1903)
Rudyard Kipling (1865-1936)
H. G. Wells (1866-1946)
Joseph Conrad (1857-1924)
Arnold Bennett (1867-1931)
Gerard Manley Hopkins (1844-1889)
Walter de la Mare (1873-1956)
Samuel Butler (1835-1902) etc.

Q1. The Waste Land was written by:
A) W.B. Yeats
B) T.S. Eliot
C) Ezra Pound
D) James Joyce
Answer: B) T.S. Eliot

Q2. Stream of consciousness is a narrative technique used by:
A) Virginia Woolf
B) Thomas Hardy
C) Robert Browning
D) Oscar Wilde
Answer: A) Virginia Woolf

Q3. Who among the following wrote the unfinished epic The Cantos?

(A) James Joyce
(B) Virginia Woolf
(C) Ezra Pound
(D) T.S. Eliot

Answer: C

Q4. T. S Eliot’s The Waste Land has-?

(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 7 parts.

Answer: B

Q5. To whom the slogan “Make It New” is widely attributed?

(A) D.H. Lawrence
(B) Joseph Conrad
(C) Gertrude Stein
(D) Ezra Pound
Answer: D

Q6. Who is the “chocolate cream soldier” in G.B. Shaw’s Arms and the Man?

(A) Sergius
(B) Major Petkoff
(C) Bluntschli
(D) Nicola
Answer: C

Q7. Who used term “dissociation of sensibility” first?

(A) T.S Eliot
(B) E.M Forster
(C) W.B. Yeats
(D) G.B. Shaw
Answer: A

Q8. Choose the correct chronological order:

(A) A Passage to India-Mrs. Dalloway-Ulysses - Pointed Roofs
(B) A Passage to India-Ulysses - Pointed Roofs -Mrs. Dalloway
(C) Mrs. Dalloway-Ulysses - Pointed Roofs -A Passage to India
(D) Pointed Roofs-Ulysses-A Passage to India- Mrs. Dalloway
Answer: D

Q9. Who wrote the novel Nineteen Eighty-Four?

(A) George Orwell
(B) Dorothy Richardson
(C) D.H. Lawrence
(D) E.M. Forster
Answer: A

Q10. Which of the following is not a modernist movement?

(A) Expressionism
(B) Surrealism
(C) Realism
(D) Humanism
Answer: C

Q11. Which movement is connected to the slogan ‘Art for Art’s Sake?

(A) Futurism
(B) Cubism
(C) Aestheticism
(D) Imagism
Answer: C

Q12. How many short stories are there in James Joyce’s Dubliners?

(A) 14
(B) 15
(C) 16
(D) 17
Answer: B

Q13. Principles of Literary Criticism is written by:

(A) I.A. Richards
(B) William Empson
(C) Allen Tate
(D) Cleanth Brook
Answer: A

Q14. The main character of the play The Playboy of the Western World is

(A) Shawn Keogh

(B) Margaret Flaherty

(D) Christy Mahon

Answer: D

Q15. Who among the following was NOT a part of the ‘Imagist’ movement?

(A) Ezra Pound
(B) Richard Aldington
(C) Hilda Doolittle
(D) Virginia Woolf
Answer: D

Q16. Of Human Bondage is written by :

(A) Oscar Wilde
(B) Henry James
(C) Somerset Maugham
(D) Joseph Conrad
Answer: C

Q17.James Joyce was a

(A) a film director
(B) a singer
(C) a novelist
(D) a scientist
Answer: C

Q18.The term ‘lost generation’ was coined by

(A) Virginia Woolf
(B) Dorothy Richardson
(C) Gertrude Stein
(D) W.H. Auden
Answer: C

Q19. D. H. Lawrence’s Sons and Lovers published in

(A) 1913
(B) 1914
(C) 1915
(D) 1916
Answer: A

Q20. The Criterion by T.S. Eliot is a

(A) Journal
(B) Book
(C) Poem
(D) Magazine
Answer: D

Q21. The character Stephen Dedalus appears in which of the two works of James Joyce?

(A) A Portrait of the Artist as a Young Man and Finnegan’s Wake
(B) A Portrait of the Artist as a Young Man and Ulysses
(C) Finnegan’s Wake and Dubliners
(D) Ulysses and Dubliners
Answer: B

To get the list of Modern Period writers and their literary works CLICK HERE

Post-Modern Period (1945–Present)

Overview

Marked by experimentation in style and form.
Major themes: alienation, existentialism, disillusionment.
Key writers:

English Literature MCQs | Post-Modern Period

Conclusion

Understanding literature period-wise helps in decoding the evolution of thought, style, and thematic focus in English literature. Whether you're preparing for exams or simply love literature, this MCQ-oriented breakdown will sharpen your recall and appreciation of each era.

📚 Literature Hub – Comprehensive Post Index

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🕰️ Restoration Age

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MANUU Admission Notification 2025-26: Complete Guide to Courses, Dates, and Application Process

2025-04-12T16:32:00.007+05:30

MANUU Admission Notification 2025-26: Complete Guide to Courses, Dates, and Application Process

Maulana Azad National Urdu University (MANUU), a Central University under the Ministry of Education, Government of India, has announced its Admission Notification for the academic year 2025-2026. Located at Gachibowli, Hyderabad, MANUU offers a wide array of programmes from Ph.D. to Diploma and Certificate courses across its main campus, satellite campuses, colleges of teacher education, and polytechnics.

Here’s everything you need to know if you are planning to apply!

Important Dates to Remember

Admissions through Entrance Test:
📅 Last Date: 13th May 2025
Admissions through Merit-Based Selection:
📅 Last Date: 4th June 2025

Courses Offered at MANUU

Admissions Through Entrance Test

Ph.D. Programmes:

Urdu, Arabic, English, Hindi, Persian, Translation Studies, Women Studies, Public Administration, Political Science, Social Work, Islamic Studies, History, Economics, Sociology, Deccan Studies, Education, Journalism & Mass Communication, Management, Commerce, Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry, Botany, Zoology, Allied Fields like Law, Culture Studies, and Comparative Literature.

Postgraduate Programmes:

MBA, MCA, M.Tech (Computer Science), M.Ed., and LLM (Master of Law).

Undergraduate Programmes:

B.Tech (Computer Science), B.Tech CS (Lateral Entry), B.Tech Civil Engineering (Under Self-Finance), LL.B., B.A. LL.B. (Hons.), B.Ed.

Professional Diplomas:

Diploma in Elementary Education (D.El.Ed.), Polytechnic Diplomas in Engineering (Civil, Computer Science, Electronics & Communication, Information Technology, Mechanical, Electrical & Electronics, Automobile, and Apparel Technologies), and Polytechnic Diploma Lateral Entry.

Admissions Through Merit-Based Selection

Postgraduate Programmes (Merit-Based):

M.A. in Urdu, English, Hindi, Arabic, Persian, Translation Studies, Women Studies, Public Administration, Political Science, Islamic Studies, History, Economics, Sociology, Legal Studies, Social Work, Journalism and Mass Communication.
M.A. JMC (Lateral Entry), M.Com., M.Sc. (Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry, Botany, Zoology).
M.Voc. (MLT, MIT) and PG Diploma in Teaching English (PGDTE).

PG Diploma Programmes (Part-time):

Functional Urdu, Hindi and Translation, Persian, Arabic, Translation.

Diploma Programmes (Part-time):

Urdu, Arabic, Persian, Pashto, French, Russian, Islamic Studies, Telugu, Turkish, Calligraphy, Tahseen-E-Ghazal, Advance Diploma in Pashto.

Certificate Programmes (Part-time):

Urdu, Arabic, Persian, Pashto, French, Russian, Telugu, Kashmiri, and Turkish.

Fashion Technology:

Certificate, Diploma, and B.Sc. in Fashion Technology offered at Hyderabad, Lucknow, Kadapa, and Varanasi.

Interior Design:

Diploma and B.Sc. in Interior Design at Hyderabad and Kadapa.

Campuses Offering Admissions

Lucknow Campus: M.A. in Urdu, English, Arabic, Hindi & Persian, and Ph.D. in Urdu, Arabic & Persian.
Srinagar (Budgam) Campus: M.A. in Economics, Islamic Studies, Women Studies, Urdu, Persian, Arabic, and English; Ph.D. in Urdu, English, Islamic Studies, Economics & Persian.
College of Teacher Education (Bhopal): B.Ed., M.Ed., and Ph.D. in Education.
College of Teacher Education (Darbhanga, Bihar): B.Ed., M.Ed., LLM, and Ph.D. in Education.
Colleges of Teacher Education at: Srinagar (J&K), Asansol (WB), Sambhal (UP), Nuh (Haryana), Bidar (Karnataka), Sambhaji Nagar (Aurangabad, Maharashtra): B.Ed.
Polytechnic Engineering Diplomas: Available in Hyderabad, Darbhanga (Bihar), Bengaluru, Kadapa (AP), Cuttack (Odisha), with courses in Civil, Mechanical, Electrical, Electronics, Computer Science, and Apparel Technologies.

Important Dates for MANUU Admissions 2025-26

Date of Issue of Notification:
11th April, 2025
Online Application Portal Opening (Entrance Test & Merit-Based Programmes):
12th April, 2025
Portal Closing (Last Date for Submission) - Entrance Test Based Programmes (Ph.D./Professional/Technical/Law/Vocational):
13th May, 2025
Portal Closing (Last Date for Submission) - Merit-Based Programmes:
4th June, 2025

Entrance Test (ET) Based Programmes

Application Editing Window:
21st – 22nd May, 2025
Issue of Admit Card:
5th June, 2025
Dates of Entrance Test Exams:
12th, 13th, 14th June, 2025

Merit-Based Programmes

Application Editing Window:
21st – 22nd June, 2025
Closing Date of Admissions (Entrance Test and Merit-Based Programmes):
31st July, 2025

Application cum Registration Fee

Category	Entrance Test Based	Merit-Based
General Category / EWS Candidates	Rs. 550.00	Rs. 350.00
SC / ST / PWD / OBC (Non-Creamy Layer) / Women Candidates	Rs. 350.00	Rs. 250.00
Foreign Students	Rs. 2500.00	-

Note:

Payment to be made online only.
Entrance Test Centre choice cannot be edited.
After the last date of application editing, no changes will be allowed in candidate data (category, programme, campus, etc.).

All the important dates and informations have been taken from MANUU Official website (Notification and Prospectus) for more information please visit the official Website www.manuu.edu.in

DOWNLOAD E-Prospectus PDF

Application Process

Applications are to be submitted online only.
The e-prospectus and online application forms are available at the official MANUU website:

🌐 www.manuu.edu.in

For clarifications, contact:
📧 admissionregular@manuu.edu.in
📞 Phone: 040-23006612 (Extn: 1801)

Notes for Applicants

Applicants must have studied Urdu as a subject or medium of instruction in their qualifying examination (except for language courses).
Hostel accommodation is available as per government rules.
Admissions to 4-Year UG & ITEP programmes will be through CUET-2025 and NCET-2025 conducted by the National Testing Agency (NTA).

Entrance Test Schedule 2025–26

(For MANUU Admissions)

Course	Departments	Entrance Dates	Exam Centers
Ph.D.	Arabic, Urdu, English, Hindi, Persian, Journalism & Mass Communication, Public Administration	12th June 2025 (FN)	Asansol (WB), Bengaluru (KS), Bhopal (MP), Bidar (KS), Cuttack (Odisha), Darbhanga (Bihar), Delhi (NCR), Gaya (Bihar), Hyderabad (TS), Jammu (J&K), Kadapa (AP), Kargil (Ladakh), Kolkata (West Bengal), Lucknow (UP), Malappuram (Kerala), Moradabad (UP), Muzaffarpur (Bihar), Muzaffarnagar (UP), Nuh (Haryana), Patna (Bihar), Purnea (Bihar), Ranchi (Jharkhand), Sambhaji Nagar (Aurangabad-Maharashtra), Siwan (Bihar), Srinagar (J&K), Varanasi (UP)
M. Tech / D.El.Ed. / Ph.D.	Islamic Studies, Social Work, History, Economics, Computer Science, Comparative Studies	12th June 2025 (AN)	(Same centers as above)
M.Ed. / MCA / LLM / Polytechnic (Lateral Entry) / B.Tech. (CS/Civil) / Ph.D.	Management, Sociology, Political Science, Translation Studies	13th June 2025 (FN)	(Same centers as above)
B.Ed. (Biological Science, Physical Science, Mathematics) / B.Tech CS Lateral Entry / Ph.D.	Commerce, Allied Health Sciences (MLT), Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry, Botany, Zoology, Deccan Studies, Law	13th June 2025 (AN)	(Same centers as above)
Diploma in Engineering (Polytechnic) / LL.B. / B.Ed. (Social Studies) / B.A. LL.B. (Hons) / Ph.D.	Social Inclusion, Language Teaching in Madrasa	14th June 2025 (FN)	(Same centers as above)
Ph.D.	Education, Urdu Culture Studies, Women Studies	14th June 2025 (AN)	(Same centers as above)
MBA / B.Ed. Urdu / English / Hindi	-	14th June 2025 (AN)	(Same centers as above)

Note:

FN: Forenoon (10:00 AM – 12:00 Noon)
AN: Afternoon (03:00 PM – 05:00 PM)

Important Instructions for Candidates:

Candidates must arrive at the examination hall at least 30 minutes before the test starts.
Only those with a valid Admit Card and valid ID proof (College ID / Aadhaar / Driving License, etc.) will be allowed to enter.
Entry will not be allowed after the commencement of the exam.
Candidates must appear at the center mentioned on their hall ticket — no changes allowed.
The university may cancel or change exam centers based on the number of candidates.
The university will not provide any accommodation or travel assistance for the exam/interview.

Conclusion

Whether you are interested in humanities, sciences, professional degrees, or vocational training, MANUU offers a diverse range of programmes tailored for academic and professional growth. Don't miss out on this opportunity to be part of a vibrant academic community!

Apply today and shape your future at MANUU!

What is MANUU?

Maulana Azad National Urdu University (MANUU) is a central university offering various undergraduate, postgraduate, diploma, and certificate programs.

What is the admission notification date for MANUU 2025-26?

The notification for MANUU Admission 2025-26 was released on 11th April 2025.

When does the application portal open for MANUU Admission?

The online application portal opens on 12th April 2025.

What is the last date to apply for entrance test based programmes?

The last date to apply for entrance test based programmes is 13th May 2025.

What is the last date to apply for merit based programmes?

For merit-based programmes, the last date to apply is 4th June 2025.

When will the entrance tests be conducted?

Entrance tests will be held from 12th to 14th June 2025.

What is the mode of application for MANUU Admission?

The application process is fully online through the official website manuu.edu.in.

How can I apply for MANUU Admission 2025-26?

Visit the official portal at manuu.edu.in and follow the instructions to complete the online application form.

What are the eligibility criteria for UG programmes?

Candidates must have passed 10+2 or equivalent examination from a recognized board to be eligible for UG programmes.

What are the eligibility criteria for PG programmes?

For PG programmes, candidates must possess a bachelor's degree in the relevant discipline from a recognized university.

Are distance education programmes available at MANUU?

Yes, MANUU offers a range of distance education programmes through its Directorate of Distance Education (DDE).

What is the admission fee for UG and PG programmes?

The admission fee varies by programme. Candidates should check the official notification for detailed fee structures.

How can I download the MANUU admission prospectus?

The prospectus is available for download on the official website manuu.edu.in.

Is there any reservation policy at MANUU?

Yes, MANUU follows the Government of India's reservation policy for SC, ST, OBC, EWS, and PwD candidates.

What documents are required for MANUU Admission?

Required documents include marksheets, certificates, photograph, signature, category certificate (if applicable), and ID proof.

When will the admission process conclude?

The admission process will conclude by 31st July 2025.

Is there an entrance test for all programmes?

No, some programmes are based on merit, while others require candidates to qualify for an entrance test.

How to check MANUU admission results?

Admission results will be published on the official website manuu.edu.in under the 'Admissions' section.

Is there any helpline for admission queries?

Yes, you can contact the admission helpdesk through details provided on the official website.

What is the official website of MANUU?

The official website of MANUU is manuu.edu.in.

CTET 2025: Syllabus, Eligibility, Latest Updates, Preparation Tips & Top Resources

2025-04-12T00:31:00.009+05:30

CTET 2026: Complete Guide to Syllabus, Eligibility, Latest Updates, Preparation Tips & Resources

What is CTET?

The Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) is a national-level exam conducted by the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) to determine the eligibility of candidates for teaching positions in government schools like KVS, NVS, and other affiliated schools.

Passing the CTET is essential for candidates aiming to teach classes 1 to 8.

CTET Latest Update 2026 (With Dates)

Stay updated with the latest notifications to avoid missing important deadlines:

Event	Date (Tentative)
Notification Release Date	June 2025
Online Application Start Date	November 2025
Last Date to Apply	December 2026
Admit Card Release	January 2026
CTET Exam Date	February 2026
Result Declaration	March 2026

Latest News:
CBSE has announced that the CTET 2026 exam will be conducted in offline (OMR) mode. Stay tuned for the official notification in June 2026!

CTET Eligibility Criteria

Before applying, ensure you meet the following criteria:

For Paper I (Classes I-V):

Senior Secondary (or equivalent) with at least 50% marks and passed or appearing in the final year of 2-year Diploma in Elementary Education (D.El.Ed).
OR, Senior Secondary with at least 45% marks and completed a 2-year Diploma in Elementary Education as per NCTE regulations.
OR, Senior Secondary with 50% marks and pursuing 4-year Bachelor of Elementary Education (B.El.Ed).

For Paper II (Classes VI-VIII):

Graduation and passed or appearing in the final year of a 2-year Diploma in Elementary Education.
OR, Graduation with at least 50% marks and pursuing Bachelor in Education (B.Ed).
OR, Senior Secondary with at least 50% marks and pursuing 4-year B.A/B.Sc.Ed or B.A.Ed/B.Sc.Ed.

Note: Relaxations are applicable as per government norms.

CTET Syllabus 2026

The syllabus is divided based on Paper I and Paper II.

Paper I (Primary Stage):

Child Development and Pedagogy
Language I (compulsory)
Language II (compulsory)
Mathematics
Environmental Studies

Paper II (Elementary Stage):

Child Development and Pedagogy
Language I (compulsory)
Language II (compulsory)
Mathematics and Science (for Maths/Science teachers)
Social Studies/Social Science (for Social Studies teachers)

💡 Pro Tip:
Focus on Child Development and Pedagogy as it’s crucial for both papers.

For the detailed syllabus, visit:
👉 CTET Official Syllabus PDF

Preparation Tips and Tricks for CTET July-2025

Understand the Exam Pattern:
- Paper I: Focuses on teaching classes I-V.
- Paper II: Focuses on teaching classes VI-VIII.
Daily Practice:
Attempt mock tests and previous year papers regularly.
Time Management:
Allocate fixed time slots for each subject.
Quality Study Material:
Refer to NCERT books and standard guides.
Stay Updated:
Follow CTET updates and changes in the syllabus.
Mock Tests & Quizzes:
- Take Free CTET Mock Test
Revise Regularly:
Keep revising concepts weekly.

Conclusion

Cracking CTET July 2025 requires dedication, smart study techniques, and the right resources. With this comprehensive guide, you’re now equipped to begin your preparation confidently. Start early, follow a schedule, and keep revising!

If you found this post helpful, don’t forget to share it with fellow aspirants. 🚀

Best of luck for your CTET journey!

🖊️ How to Apply for CTET July 2025 — Step-by-Step Guide

Applying for CTET is an entirely online process. Follow these steps to successfully submit your application for the CTET July 2025 exam:

Step 1: Visit the Official Website

Go to the official CTET website:
👉 https://ctet.nic.in

Step 2: Click on "Apply Online"

On the homepage, you will find the "Apply Online" link. Click on it to start your registration process.

Step 3: Registration

Click on ‘New Registration’.
Read the instructions carefully and proceed.
Fill in the required details such as your name, parents' name, date of birth, contact number, email ID, etc.
Set a password and choose a security question.
Submit the form to receive your registration number and password.

Step 4: Fill the Application Form

Login using your registration number and password.
Complete the application form by filling in your personal details, educational qualifications, choice of exam center, preferred language for the question paper, and subject details.

Step 5: Upload Documents

Upload scanned copies of:

Recent Passport Size Photograph (Size: 10kb - 100kb)
Signature (Size: 3kb - 30kb)

Compress your image here

✅ Tip: Make sure the documents are clear and as per the prescribed size and format.

Step 6: Pay the Application Fee

Pay the examination fee using debit/credit card, net banking, or UPI.

Category	Paper I or II Only	Both Paper I & II
General/OBC	₹1000	₹1200
SC/ST/PwD	₹500	₹600

Step 7: Download Confirmation Page

After successful payment, download and save the confirmation page for future reference. It acts as proof of successful submission.

Step 8: Print the Application Form

Take a printout of your completed application form and confirmation page. While it's not mandatory to send it by post, keeping a hard copy is always recommended.

📝 Important Tips:

✅ Apply well before the deadline to avoid last-minute issues.
✅ Double-check all details before submitting the form.
✅ Keep your mobile number and email active for future updates.

📅 Important Dates for CTET July 2025 (Tentative)

Event	Date
Notification Release	April 2025
Start of Online Application	April 2025
Last Date to Apply	May 2025
Admit Card Release	July 2025
Exam Date	July 2025

Visit the Official Website ctet.nic.in

Frequently Asked Questions (FAQ) – CTET July 2025

1. When will the CTET 2025 notification be released?

The official CTET 2025 notification is expected to be released in June 2025 on the official website ctet.nic.in.

2. What is the exam date for CTET July 2025?

The CTET 2025 exam is tentatively scheduled for August 2025. Stay updated for the exact date once CBSE releases the official notice.

3. Who is eligible for CTET July 2025?

Candidates who have completed or are in the final year of a Diploma in Elementary Education (D.El.Ed), B.Ed, or equivalent courses, as specified by CBSE, are eligible. Refer to our Eligibility Criteria section for full details.

4. What is the validity of the CTET certificate?

The CTET certificate is now valid for a lifetime, as per the latest government guidelines.

5. Is there negative marking in CTET 2025?

No, there is no negative marking in the CTET examination.

6. How many papers are there in CTET?

CTET consists of two papers:

Paper I: For candidates aiming to teach classes I-V.
Paper II: For candidates aiming to teach classes VI-VIII.

Candidates can appear for both papers if they wish to teach classes I-VIII.

7. What are the minimum qualifying marks for CTET?

Candidates need to score at least 60% (i.e., 90 out of 150 marks) to qualify. Some relaxation is provided for reserved categories.

8. Can I appear for CTET without a B.Ed degree?

Yes, you can appear for Paper I if you have completed or are pursuing D.El.Ed. For Paper II, B.Ed or an equivalent qualification is required.

9. How to apply for CTET July 2025?

Applications must be submitted online through the official website: ctet.nic.in. Detailed steps will be available once the notification is released.

10. What is the application fee for CTET 2025?

The expected application fee is:

General/OBC (NCL): ₹1000 for one paper, ₹1200 for both papers.
SC/ST/Differently Abled: ₹500 for one paper, ₹600 for both papers.

Check the official notification for final details.

What is the CTET exam?

CTET (Central Teacher Eligibility Test) is a national-level exam conducted by CBSE to determine the eligibility of candidates for teaching positions in schools.

When will CTET July 2025 be conducted?

The CTET July 2025 exam is expected to be held in July 2025. The official dates will be announced by CBSE on their official website.

What is the eligibility for CTET?

Candidates must have a minimum qualification of 50% in senior secondary education along with a diploma or degree in education. Detailed eligibility depends on the paper (I or II) you are applying for.

How to prepare effectively for CTET?

Understand the syllabus thoroughly, follow a proper study plan, practice mock tests, and refer to good resources like Himanshi Ma’am’s YouTube channel for English and Pedagogy.

Where can I find good resources for CTET preparation?

You can check out CBSE’s official website, NCERT books, previous year question papers, and online video lectures from experienced educators like Himanshi Ma’am on YouTube.

👉 Join Our Telegram Group

MCQ on English Literature – Your Ultimate Practice Hub

2025-04-11T20:18:00.004+05:30

📝 MCQ on English Literature – Your Ultimate Practice Hub

Welcome to Literature Hub, your go-to platform for mastering English literature through well-curated multiple-choice questions (MCQs). Whether you're preparing for UGC-NET, SET, TGT/PGT, or just testing your knowledge for fun—this collection has something for every literature enthusiast.

📚 Table of Contents

MCQs on English literature (Periodically)
MCQs on Literary Theory & Criticism
MCQs on Global/World Literature in English
Exam-Specific MCQ Sets
- UGC NET / SET / JRF
- PGT / TGT / JHTET

MCQs on Literary Periods

Challenge your knowledge of key literary periods with specialized MCQ sets:

📜 Old English – Epic beginnings of English literature.
🏰 Middle English – From Chaucer to mystery plays.
👑 Restoration Age – Comedy of manners and satire.
❤️ Romantic Age – Wordsworth, Shelley, Keats & co.
👗 Victorian Age – Realism, industrialization, and reform.
🎭 Modern Period – Modernist experiments in form and theme.

MCQs on Literary Theory & Criticism

Sharpen your analytical lens with questions on:

📘 Literary Criticism – From Aristotle to Derrida.

MCQs on Global Literature in English

Explore diverse literary voices beyond Britain:

🇮🇳 Indian Literature – Colonial and postcolonial gems.
🇺🇸 American Literature – From Hawthorne to Morrison.
🌍 African Literature – Achebe, Soyinka, and postcolonial critique.
🇩🇪 German Literature – Goethe and beyond, in English.
🍁 Canadian Literature – Voices from the north.

Exam-Specific MCQ Sets

Curated content for major exams:

📖 UGC NET / SET / JRF – Past papers, topic-based quizzes.
🏫 PGT / TGT / JHTET – Syllabus-wise breakdown, including:
- English Language MCQ for JHTET

📲 Download the App

Get access to quizzes, PDFs, and more on-the-go.
👉 Download 'Literature Hub' App

BPSC TRE 4.0 Notification 2025: Syllabus, Updates & Vacancies

2025-04-10T14:43:00.005+05:30

BPSC TRE 4.0: Complete Guide, Syllabus, and Latest Updates (2026)

The Bihar Public Service Commission (BPSC) has officially released the notification for the **Teacher Recruitment Exam (TRE) 4.0**, creating a wave of excitement among teaching aspirants in Bihar. Whether you’re preparing for Primary, Secondary, or Higher Secondary posts, this post covers everything — eligibility, syllabus, exam pattern, and new updates. Stay with us till the end!

Introduction to BPSC TRE 4.0

The BPSC TRE (Teacher Recruitment Exam) is an initiative by the Bihar government to fill teaching positions across the state. TRE 4.0 is the fourth phase of this ongoing recruitment drive, aimed at improving the quality of education by bringing in qualified teachers for primary, secondary, and higher secondary schools.

Important Dates

Notification Release Date: February 2026
Application Start Date: March 2026 (Exact date to be announced)
Application End Date: March 2026
Exam Date: Expected in April 2026
Admit Card Release: 10-15 days before the exam

For more update please visit the Official Website regularly : Click here to visit Official Website BPSC TRE 4.0

Vacancy Details

BPSC has announced thousands of vacancies under TRE 4.0 across various categories:

Primary Teacher (Class 1-5): Approx. 30,000 posts
Middle School Teacher (Class 6-8): Approx. 20,000 posts
Secondary Teacher (Class 9-10): Approx. 15,000 posts
Higher Secondary Teacher (Class 11-12): Approx. 10,000 posts

Note: Final numbers will be confirmed in the official notification.

Eligibility Criteria

Candidates must meet the following eligibility criteria:

Primary Teacher (Class 1-5)

Senior Secondary with at least 50% marks and D.El.Ed (Diploma in Elementary Education) OR
Graduation with B.Ed
Passed CTET or BTET (Paper 1)

Middle School Teacher (Class 6-8)

Graduation and D.El.Ed/B.Ed OR
Graduation with 50% marks and B.Ed/B.Ed Special Education
Qualified in Paper 2 of CTET/BTET

Secondary Teacher (Class 9-10)

Graduation in relevant subject and B.Ed
Qualified STET (Secondary Teacher Eligibility Test)

Higher Secondary Teacher (Class 11-12)

Post-graduation in relevant subject with B.Ed OR
Post-graduation with minimum 55% marks and 3-year integrated B.Ed-M.Ed program

Exam Pattern

The exam will be conducted offline (OMR-based). The latest pattern includes:

Total Marks: 150
Duration: 2.5 Hours
Subjects:
- General Studies: 50 Marks
- Subject Concerned: 100 Marks
Negative Marking: No negative marking

Detailed Syllabus

General Studies (Common for all)

Current Affairs (National & International)
Indian History & Culture
Geography (India & Bihar)
Polity and Constitution of India
Environmental Studies
Basic Science
Logical Reasoning and Analytical Ability
General Mental Ability

Subject Concerned

For the subject part, questions will be based on your selected teaching subject (like Hindi, English, Mathematics, Science, Social Science, etc.). The syllabus generally covers:

Pedagogical Issues
Subject Depth Knowledge (as per NCERT guidelines)
Teaching Methodologies
Recent Developments in the Subject

What's New in TRE 4.0?

More Transparency: Online application and OMR-based testing to ensure fairness.
Increased Vacancies: More positions than TRE 3.0, especially for Science and Mathematics teachers.
No Interview: Selection will be based purely on written examination.
Reservation Policy: Bihar reservation rules will be followed strictly, hopefully.

Preparation Tips

Understand the syllabus deeply — especially your subject area.
Practice previous year papers to understand the exam trend.
Read current affairs daily, especially related to Bihar.
Focus on NCERT books for concept clarity.
Mock tests and time management practice are crucial.

Conclusion

BPSC TRE 4.0 is a golden opportunity for all aspiring teachers in Bihar. With thousands of vacancies, a transparent process, and a clear syllabus, it’s time to gear up and give your best shot. Stay updated with official notifications, follow a disciplined study plan, and success will follow!

For more updates, stay tuned to our blog. Good luck!

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Crack JHTET 2025: Exam Pattern, Eligibility, Syllabus & Success Tips

2025-04-10T13:35:00.005+05:30

All You Need to Know About JHTET: Jharkhand Teacher Eligibility Test

Introduction

Teaching is one of the most noble professions, and the Jharkhand Teacher Eligibility Test (JHTET) serves as a gateway for aspiring teachers in Jharkhand. Whether you dream of teaching in government schools or want to validate your teaching eligibility, JHTET is an essential milestone. In this blog, we will cover everything you need to know about JHTET, from eligibility to exam strategy.

What is JHTET?

JHTET stands for Jharkhand Teacher Eligibility Test, conducted by the Jharkhand Academic Council (JAC). It is a state-level examination aimed at determining the eligibility of candidates aspiring to become teachers in primary (Class I-V) and upper primary (Class VI-VIII) levels across Jharkhand’s government schools.

Clearing this exam is mandatory for teaching positions in state government schools.

Eligibility Criteria of JHTET

Before applying for JHTET, it's crucial to understand the eligibility requirements:

For Paper I (Primary Level – Class I-V):
- Senior Secondary (or equivalent) with at least 50% marks and passed or appearing in final year of 2-year Diploma in Elementary Education.
For Paper II (Upper Primary Level – Class VI-VIII):
- Graduation and passed or appearing in final year of 2-year Diploma in Elementary Education.
- OR Graduation with at least 50% marks and 1-year Bachelor in Education (B.Ed).

Note: Relaxations in qualifications are applicable for reserved categories as per Jharkhand state rules.

Exam Pattern

JHTET consists of two papers:

Paper	For Classes	Subjects	Number of Questions	Marks
Paper I	I to V	Child Development and Pedagogy, Language I, Language II, Mathematics, Environmental Studies	150	150
Paper II	VI to VIII	Child Development and Pedagogy, Language I, Language II, Mathematics & Science (or Social Studies for relevant candidates)	150	150

Each question carries 1 mark.
No negative marking.
Duration: 2 hours 30 minutes per paper.

Syllabus Overview

While the detailed syllabus is vast, here’s a snapshot:

Paper I

Child Development & Pedagogy: Learning theories, child development, and pedagogical issues.
Languages: Comprehension, grammar, and language pedagogy.
Mathematics & EVS: Concepts, problem-solving abilities, and pedagogical understanding.

Paper II

Child Development & Pedagogy: Focuses on child development for the age group 11–14 years.
Languages: Similar to Paper I but at an advanced level.
Subject-Specific: Mathematics and Science (for Science stream candidates) or Social Studies (for Arts stream candidates).

Pro Tip: Always refer to the official syllabus provided by JAC for accuracy.

Application Process of JHTET

The application process for JHTET is completely online. Here's a step-by-step guide:

Visit the official JAC website. https://jac.jharkhand.gov.in/jac/
Register with your basic details.
Fill in the application form carefully.
Upload the required documents.
Pay the application fee online.
Submit and take a printout for future reference.

Application fees differ for General/OBC and SC/ST categories.

Preparation Tips

Understand the Exam Pattern: Familiarize yourself with the format and types of questions.
Follow a Study Plan: Allocate daily study hours for each subject.
Practice Previous Papers: This helps with time management and understanding question trends.
Revise Regularly: Revision is key to retaining concepts.
Take Mock Tests: Simulate exam conditions to boost confidence.

Important Dates

While the specific dates vary each year, here’s a typical timeline:

Event	Tentative Timeline
Notification Release	August-September
Application Start Date	September
Admit Card Release	November
Exam Date	November-December
Result Declaration	January

Always check the official website for the latest updates.

Conclusion

JHTET is not just an exam—it's a golden opportunity for those passionate about teaching. With dedication, a strategic approach, and consistent practice, you can clear the test and take a significant step toward your dream teaching career in Jharkhand. Start early, stay focused, and success will follow!

FAQs

1. How many times is JHTET conducted in a year?
Usually, JHTET is conducted once a year.

2. Is there negative marking in JHTET?
No, there is no negative marking.

3. What is the validity of the JHTET certificate?
The JHTET certificate is valid for a lifetime.

4. Can I apply for both Paper I and Paper II?
Yes, eligible candidates can apply for both papers.

5. Is JHTET mandatory for private schools?
While not mandatory, many reputed private schools prefer TET-qualified teachers.

To get MCQs on Language 1 English click here

JHTET LANGUAGE 1 – ENGLISH MCQ

2024-09-07T23:53:00.003+05:30

LANGUAGE 1 – ENGLISH MCQ JHTET

MCQ for Jharkhand TET Language 1 - English

The Age of Chaucer : Poetry

The Age of Shakespeare : Drama

Part 2 Click here

The classical Age : Poetry and Novel

The Romantic Age : Poetry and Novel

The Victorian Age : Poetry and Novel

Victorian poets and Novelist

The Modern Age : Poetry, Drama and Novel

List of Modern Authors and their works

👇👇

Old English to Modern Period MCQ

German literature in English | MCQ

2024-08-23T23:17:00.030+05:30

German literature in English:

German writers in English Literature| MCQ

Which is the earliest poetic text in German which tells of the tragic encounter in battle between a father and a son?

A) Erich Maria Remarque

B) Hermann Hesse

C) Thomas Mann

D) Franz Kafka

Answer: C) Thomas Mann

Short Questions and Answers on German Literature in English:

1. Who wrote "The Sorrows of Young Werther"?

Answer: Johann Wolfgang von Goethe

Which German writer wrote "The Trial"?

Answer: Franz Kafka

3. Who wrote "Doctor Faustus"?

Answer: Thomas Mann

4. Which German writer wrote "The Tin Drum"?

Answer: Günter Grass

5. Who wrote "Death in Venice"?

Answer: Thomas Mann

Famous German writers in English:

1. Johann Wolfgang von Goethe (1749-1832)

"Faust"
"The Sorrows of Young Werther"

2. Friedrich Schiller (1759-1805)

"Don Carlos"
"Wallenstein"

3. Thomas Mann (1875-1955)

"The Magic Mountain"
"Death in Venice"
"Doctor Faustus"

4. Franz Kafka (1883-1924)

"The Metamorphosis"
"The Trial"
"The Castle"

5. Hermann Hesse (1877-1962)

"Steppenwolf"
"Siddhartha"
"Demian"

6. Erich Maria Remarque (1898-1970)

"All Quiet on the Western Front"

7. Günter Grass (1927-2015)

"The Tin Drum"
"Cat and Mouse"

8. Heinrich Böll (1917-1985)

"The Clown"
"Group Portrait with Lady"

9. Hermann Broch (1886-1951)

"The Death of Virgil"

10. Robert Musil (1880-1942)

"The Man Without Qualities"

10 influential German novels translated into English:

1. "The Sorrows of Young Werther" (1774) by Johann Wolfgang von Goethe

2. "The Metamorphosis" (1915) by Franz Kafka

3. "Steppenwolf" (1927) by Hermann Hesse

4. "The Magic Mountain" (1924) by Thomas Mann

5. "All Quiet on the Western Front" (1929) by Erich Maria Remarque

6. "The Tin Drum" (1959) by Günter Grass

7. "The Clown" (1963) by Heinrich Böll

8. "The Man Without Qualities" (1930) by Robert Musil

9. "Berlin Alexanderplatz" (1929) by Alfred Döblin

10. "Effi Briest" (1894) by Theodor Fontane

Most famous German linguists with their works translated into English:

1. Jacob Grimm (1785-1863)

- "Grimm's Law" (1822)

- "German Grammar" (1837)

2. Wilhelm von Humboldt (1767-1835)

- "On the Dual Form" (1827)

- "On Language" (1836)

3. Ferdinand de Saussure (1857-1913)

- "Course in General Linguistics" (1916)

4. J.R. Ries (1856-1933)

- "English-German Dictionary" (1907)

5. Leo Weisgerber (1899-1985)

- "German Language and Culture" (1951)

6. Hans-Georg Gadamer (1900-2002)

- "Truth and Method" (1960)

7. Helmut Gipper (1919-2011)

- "The Language of Science" (1955)

8. Konrad Ehlich (1941-present)

- "Language and Culture" (1989)

Header 1	Header 2	Header 3
S	R	t
Row 2, Cell 1	Row 2, Cell 2	Row 2, Cell 3

MCQ ON AFRICAN LITERATURE

2024-08-18T17:51:00.013+05:30

MCQ ON AFRICAN LITERATURE | English Literature

Multiple Choice Questions on African, South African, Nigerian writers in English Literature| MCQ on African Renaissance| MCQ on African Modernism | MCQ on African Movement| MCQ on African Nobel winning writers in English Literature| MCQ on African Writers in English Literature (South African, Nigerian, Kenyan, and Ghanaian Poets, Dramatists, Novelist and Critics)

African Literature MCQ in English| Literature Hub

MCQ ON AFRICAN LITERATURE IN ENGLISH WITH ANSWER

Who is considered the father of modern African literature?

A) Chinua Achebe

B) Wole Soyinka

C) Ngugi wa Thiong'o

D) Ayi Kwei Armah

Answer: A) Chinua Achebe

Which novel is often regarded as the first African novel written in English?

A) "Things Fall Apart"

B) "The Beautyful Ones Are Not Yet Born"

C) "Cry, the Beloved Country"

D) "Mine Boy"

Answer: D) "Mine Boy" (written by Peter Abrahams in 1946)

What is the name of the literary movement that emerged in Nigeria in the 1950s and 1960s?

A) African Renaissance

B) Negritude

C) African Modernism

D) Nigerian Literary Movement

Answer: B) Negritude

Who among the following African writers got Nobel Prize in Literature in 2003 ?

A) Wole Soyinka

B) J.M. Coetzee

C) Doris Lessing

D) Nadine Gordimer

Ans. B) J.M. Coetzee

Who is the first African to win the Nobel Prize in Literature?

A) Wole Soyinka

B) Naguib Mahfouz

C) Doris Lessing

D) Nadine Gordimer

Answer: A) Wole Soyinka (won in 1986)

Which novel explores the impact of colonialism on African society?

A) "Things Fall Apart"

B) "The Joys of Motherhood"

C) "Cry, the Beloved Country"

D) "Arrow of God"

Answer: A) "Things Fall Apart"

Which Nigerian author wrote the novel "Half of a Yellow Sun"?

A) Chinua Achebe

B) Wole Soyinka

C) Chimamanda Ngozi Adichie

D) Ben Okri

Answer: C) Chimamanda Ngozi Adichie

What is the title of the debut novel by Ghanaian author Ayi Kwei Armah?

A) "The Beautyful Ones Are Not Yet Born"

B) "Two Thousand Seasons"

C) "The Healers"

D) "Osiris Rising"

Answer: A) "The Beautyful Ones Are Not Yet Born"

Which South African author wrote the novel "Cry, the Beloved Country"?

A) Alan Paton

B) Nadine Gordimer

C) J.M. Coetzee

D) Zakes Mda

Answer: A) Alan Paton

What is the name of the protagonist in Chinua Achebe's novel "Things Fall Apart"?

A) Okonkwo

B) Obierika

C) Nwoye

D) Mr. Brown

Answer: A) Okonkwo

Which Kenyan author wrote the novel "Devil on the Cross"?

A) Ngugi wa Thiong'o

B) Meja Mwangi

C) Grace Ogot

D) Francis Imbuga

Answer: A) Ngugi wa Thiong'o

What is Chinua Achebe's most famous novel?

A) "Things Fall Apart"

B) "No Longer at Ease"

C) "Arrow of God"

D) "A Man of the People"

Answer: A) "Things Fall Apart"

Which of the following is a major theme in Achebe's works?

A) Colonialism and its impact on African society

B) Love and relationships

C) African culture and traditions

D) All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above

Which of the following is NOT a novel by Chinua Achebe?

A) "Anthills of the Savannah"

B) "The Lion and the Jewel"

C) "The Joys of Motherhood"

D) "A Grain of Wheat"

Answer: B) "The Lion and the Jewel" (this is a play by Wole Soyinka)

What is the name of Achebe's autobiography?

A) "Home and Exile"

B) "The Education of a British-Protected Child"

C) "There Was a Country"

D) "Achebe: A Biography"

Answer: B) "The Education of a British-Protected Child"

Which novelist wrote "The Beautyful Ones Are Not Yet Born"?

A) Ayi Kwei Armah

B) Ama Ata Aidoo

C) Kojo Laing

D) Ben Okri

Answer: A) Ayi Kwei Armah

Who wrote the novel "Half of a Yellow Sun"?

A) Chimamanda Ngozi Adichie

B) Zainab Alkali

C) Buchi Emecheta

D) Yvonne Vera

Answer: A) Chimamanda Ngozi Adichie

Poets:

Who is the author of the poem "The Negro Speaks of Rivers"?

A) Langston Hughes

B) Countee Cullen

C) Claude McKay

D) W.E.B. Du Bois

Answer: A) Langston Hughes

Which African poet wrote "The Waste Land of Africa"?

A) Christopher Okigbo

B) Wole Soyinka

C) John Pepper Clark

D) Odia Ofeimun

Answer: A) Christopher Okigbo

Who among the following African poets wrote the poem "Mother Africa"?

A) Kofi Anyidoho

B) Atukwei Okai

C) Efua Sutherland

D) Ama Ata Aidoo

Answer: A) Kofi Anyidoho

Who wrote the novel "Cry, the Beloved Country"?

A) Chinua Achebe

B) Alan Paton

C) Ngugi wa Thiong'o

D) Wole Soyinka

Answer: B) Alan Paton

Which Afeican author wrote "The Joys of Motherhood"?

A) Buchi Emecheta

B) Zainab Alkali

C) Ama Ata Aidoo

D) Yvonne Vera

Answer: A) Buchi Emecheta

1. Which Kenya writer wrote the novel "Devil on the Cross"?

A) Ngugi wa Thiong'o

B) Meja Mwangi

C) Grace Ogot

D) Francis Imbuga

Answer: A) Ngugi wa Thiong'o

Which author wrote "The Beautyful Ones Are Not Yet Born"?

A) Ayi Kwei Armah

B) Kojo Laing

C) Ben Okri

D) Ama Ata Aidoo

Answer: A) Ayi Kwei Armah

Who wrote the novel "Half of a Yellow Sun"?

A) Chimamanda Ngozi Adichie

B) Zainab Alkali

C) Buchi Emecheta

D) Yvonne Vera

Answer: A) Chimamanda Ngozi Adichie

CHECK ALSO 👇

MCQ ON INDIAN LITERATURE

MCQ ON AMERICAN LITERATURE

MCQ ON CANADIAN LITERATURE

MCQ ON GREEK LITERATURE

MCQ ON FRENCH LITERATURE

MCQ ON GERMAN LITERATURE

Here is a list of prominent African award-winning writers in English:

1. Chinua Achebe (Nigeria)

- Man Booker International Prize (2007)

- Prince Claus Award (1990)

2. Wole Soyinka (Nigeria)

- Nobel Prize in Literature (1986)

- Anisfield-Wolf Book Award (1983)

3. Ngugi wa Thiong'o (Kenya)

- Man Booker International Prize (2019)

- Lotus Prize for Literature (1973)

4. Nadine Gordimer (South Africa)

- Nobel Prize in Literature (1991)

- Booker Prize (1974)

5. J.M. Coetzee (South Africa)

- Nobel Prize in Literature (2003)

- Booker Prize (1983, 1999)

6. Ben Okri (Nigeria)

- Booker Prize (1991)

- Commonwealth Writers' Prize (1988)

7. Chimamanda Ngozi Adichie (Nigeria)

- National Book Critics Circle Award (2013)

- Baileys Women's Prize for Fiction (2007)

8. Zakes Mda (South Africa)

- Commonwealth Writers' Prize (2001)

- Sunday Times Fiction Prize (2001)

9. Ayi Kwei Armah (Ghana)

- Prince Claus Award (2010)

- Langston Hughes Medal (2010)

10. Ama Ata Aidoo (Ghana)

- Commonwealth Writers' Prize (1992)

- Nelson Mandela Prize for Literature (2000)

African writers and their notable works:

1. Chinua Achebe (Nigeria)

- "Things Fall Apart" (1958)
- "No Longer at Ease" (1960)
- "Arrow of God" (1964)

2. Wole Soyinka (Nigeria)

- "The Lion and the Jewel" (1962)
- "Death and the King's Horseman" (1975)
- "Aké: The Years of Childhood" (1981)

3. Ngugi wa Thiong'o (Kenya)

- "Weep Not, Child" (1964)
- "The River Between" (1965)
- "Devil on the Cross" (1982)

4. Nadine Gordimer (South Africa)

- "The Conservationist" (1974)
- "Burger's Daughter" (1979)
- "July's People" (1981)

5. J.M. Coetzee (South Africa)

- "Dusklands" (1974)
- "Waiting for the Barbarians" (1980)
- "Disgrace" (1999)

6. Ben Okri (Nigeria)

- "Flowers and Shadows" (1980)
- "The Famished Road" (1991)
- "Songs of Enchantment" (1993)

7. Chimamanda Ngozi Adichie (Nigeria)

- "Half of a Yellow Sun" (2006)
- "Americanah" (2013)
- "Dear Ijeawele, or a Feminist Manifesto in Fifteen Suggestions" (2017)

8. Ayi Kwei Armah (Ghana)

- "The Beautyful Ones Are Not Yet Born" (1968)
- "Two Thousand Seasons" (1973)
- "The Healers" (1978)

9. Ama Ata Aidoo (Ghana)

- "The Dilemma of a Ghost" (1965)
- "Anowa" (1970)
- "Changes: A Love Story" (1991)

10. Zakes Mda (South Africa)

- "Ways of Dying" (1995)
- "The Heart of Redness" (2000)
- "The Madonna of Excelsior" (2002)

American writers in English Literature | MCQ

2024-08-07T18:30:00.014+05:30

MCQ on American Writers in English Literature

American Literature MCQs with answers for PGT, TGT, SET, TET, UGC NET and Entrance exam| Most repeatedly asked Questions from American Literature

MCQ on American writers and their literary works | MCQ on American Poets | American writings in English Literature MCQs with answer | Most important Questions from American Literature

Multiple Choice Questions on American Literature

1. Among the following American writers who is not considered as American Romantic Author ?

A. Henry David Thoreau

B. Harman Melville

C. Waldo Emerson

D. Arthur Miller

Ans. D

2. Among the following works of Nathaniel Hawthorne which one was published first ?

A. The Scarlet Letter

B. Fanshowe

C. The House of Seven Gables

D. The Blithdale Romance

Ans. B

3. Hester Pryne is a character who conceived a daughter through an affair. Identify the work she appears in among the followings:

A. The Scarlet Letter
B. Fanshowe
C. The House of Seven Gables
D. The Blithdale Romance

Ans. A

4. American writer, Edwin Markham is remembered for one poem. Identify the work given below:

A. The Man With the Hoe

B. Leaves of Grass

C. A Magzine of Verse

D. The Children of Night

Ans. A

5. Among the following American writer who is considered as memoirist?

A. Walt Whitman

B. Herman Melville

C. Hilda Doolittle

D. Nathaniel Hawthorne

Ans. C

6. Among the following American writers who used the pen name 'Mase Velsor' ?

A. Walt Whitman

B. Herman Melville

C. Hilda Doolittle

D. Nathaniel Hawthorne

7. One of the American poet mentioned his age in his poetry :

" I, now thirty seven years old in perfect health begin

Hoping to cease not till death."

Identify the poet.

A. Hilda Doolittle

A. Arthur Miller

B. William Hill Brown

C. Royall Tyler

D. James Fennimore Cooper

14. "I Hear America Singing” is a poem written by ___ .

A. Hilda Doolittle

B. Ezra Pound

C. Walt Whitman

D. Robert Frost

Ans. C

15. “Let America be America Again” is poem by __.

A. Robert Frost

B. Langston Hughes

C. Ezra Pound

D. Walt Whitman

Ans. B

16. Which of the following poem is written by the American poet, Robert Lowell?

A. "Anecdote of the Jar"

B. "A Gift Outright

C. "Howl"

D. "Night Sweat"

Ans. D

17. Which of the following poem is written by the American poet, Robert Frost?

A. "Anecdote of the Jar"

B. "A Gift Outright

C. "Howl"

D. "Night Sweat"

Ans. B

18. Which of the following poem is written by the American poet, Allen Ginsberg?

A. "Anecdote of the Jar"

B. "A Gift Outright

C. "Howl"

D. "Night Sweat"

Ans. C

19. Poems "Shunk Hour" and "Night Sweat" are written by which one of the following American poet ?

A. Robert Lowell.

B. Allen Ginsberg

C. Robert Frost

D. Langston Hughes

Ans. A

20. Out of the Cradle Endlessly Rocking" is one of his most complex and successfully integrated poems by which of the following American poet?

A. Robert Frost

B. Langston Hughes

C. Ezra Pound

D. Walt Whitman

Ans. D

MCQ on American Literature Part 2

Quiz on American Literature

MCQ on Indian Literature

MCQ on Canadian Literature

MCQ on European Literature

Invisible Man is a novel by American writer Ralph Ellison . Identify the correct publication year given below:

A. 1945

B. 1952

C. 1954

D. 1949

Ans. B

Which of the work by Ralph Ellison won the U.S. National Book Award for fiction in 1953, making Ellison the first African-American writer to win the award.

A. Shadow and Act

B. Juneteenth

C. Invisible Man

D. Going to the Territory

Ans. C

Which among the following was written by the American writer Herman Melville?

A. Typee : A Peep at Polynesian Life

B. Light in August

C. The Tragedy of Pudd'nhead Wilson

D. Across The River and into The Trees

Ans. A

Quiz on American Literature Loading...

BPSC English Literature MCQ

2024-08-05T19:33:00.005+05:30

English literature MCQ for BPSC

BPSC English PYQ English Literature

The monster Grendel appears in which one of the following poems?

(A) Beowulf

(B) Historia Regum Britanniae

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

The Owl and the Nightingale had been written primarily for which one of the following classes of the audience?

(A) English nuns

(B) Women recluses who had chosen the solitary life

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Who is the narrator of the poem, Phyllyp Sparowe ?

(A) Dame of Margery

(B) William Thynne

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Which one of the following works speaks of a government controlled by a self-perpetuating oligarchy?

(A) The History of King Richard III

(B) In Praise of Folly

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of thea above

Which one of the following poems had been written as an allegorical lament on the death of the first wife of John of Gaunt?

(A) The Book of the Duchess

(B) The Legend of Good Women

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

“Come, let me write. “And to what end?” To ease A burthened heart. “How can words ease, which are The glasses of thy daily vexing care?”

The above verse has been in which one of the following poems?

(A) Astrophil and Stella

(B) Arcadia

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Quotations from English Literature for BPSC

Literary terms and their propounders | MCQ for UGC NET Aspirants

2024-03-30T22:46:00.013+05:30

Propounders of Important Literary Terms

100 Literary Terms for English Literature Students| MCQ | MCQ based on Literary terms and their propounders

Literary Terms and their Propounders | MCQ

Who coined the term 'Negative Capability, gynocriticism, Theature of Absurd, stream of consciousness, pathetic fallacy, heteroglossia, hybridity ? Find such Multiple Choice Questions with Answers following:

Propounders of Important Literary Terms | 100 MCQs with answers

1. Who coined the term 'Negative Capability'?

A. T. S. Eliot

B. John Keats

C. S. T. Coleridge

D. George and Tom

Ans. B

2. John Keats coined the term 'Negative Capability' in a letter to ___.

A. T. S. Eliot

B. John Keats

C. S. T. Coleridge

D. George and Tom

Ans. D

3. Who coined the term 'Gyno Criticism' ?

A. Eline Showalter

B. Charles Fourier

C. Alice Walker

D. Verginia Woolf

Ans. A

4. Who coined the term 'Theatre of the Absurd' ?

A. Irving Wardle

B. Sydney Grundy

C. Martin Esslin

D. Albert Camus

Ans. C

5. The term 'Deep Structure' is associated with whom among the following?

A. Noam Chomsky

B. Ferdinand De Saussure

C. William Epsom

D. John Crowe Ransome

Ans. A

6. Who coined the term 'Stream of Consciousness' ?

A. T. S. Eliot

B. Vergina Woolf

C. William James

D. Toni Morrison

Ans. C

7. Who is the propounder of English Sonnet ?

A. William Shakespeare

B. Spencer

C. Thomas Wyatt

D. Petrarch

Ans. C

8. Who coined the term 'Pathetic Fallacy' ?

A. Wimsatt

B. John Ruskin

C. Beardsley

D. Both A & C

Ans. B

9. The term 'Terza Rima' was invented by __.

Thomas Wyatt

B. John Milton

C. Lord Byron

D. Dante Alighieri

Ans. D

10. Who is the propounder of 'Blank Verse in English drama' ?

A. Thomas Norton

B. Thomas Sackville

C. Thomas Wyatt

D. Both A & B

Ans. Thomas Norton and Thomas Sackville in Gorboduc (1561).

11. Among the following who first used 5he term 'Rhyme Royal'

A. Geoffrey Chaucer

B. Surrey

C. Thomas Wyatt

D. Samuel Johnson

Ans. A

12. Who among the following is the only novelist of Temperance Novel ?

A. Walt Whitman

B. D. H. Lawrence

C. E. M. Foster

D. Henry Fielding

Ans. A

13. Who 8s the propounder of the term New Criticism first ?

A. William Epsom

B. John Crowe Ransome

C. I.A. Richards:

D. J. E. Spingarn

Ans. D

14. Who coined the term 'Augustan Age'?

A. Coleridge

B. Wordsworth

C. Oliver Goldsmith

D. Samuel Johnson

Ans. C

15. Who coined the term 'Irregular Ode' or 'Pindaric Ode' ?

A. Horace

B. Abraham Cowley

C. John Keats

D. P. B. Shelley

Ans. B

16. Who coined the term 'Jazz age' (1918-1929) ?

A. Ernest Hemingway

B. Gertrude Stein

C. E.E. Cummings

D. F. Scott Fitzgerald

Ans. D

17. The term 'Heteroglossia' is associated with _.

A. George Gascoigne

B. Mikhail Bakhtin

C. Derrida

D. Claude Levi Strauss

Ans. B

18. Who coined the literary term 'Chutnification' ?

A. E. M. Foster

B. Salman Rushdie

C. R. K. Narayan

D. Shashi Tharoor

Ans. B

20. Who coined the literary term 'Hybridity' ?

A. Theodore Adorno

B. Horkheimer

C. Homi Bhabha

D. Charles Darwin

Ans. C

21. Who coined the literary term 'Aporia' which refers to “blind spots” of any metaphysical argument.”

A. Fardinand De Saussure

B. Antonio Gramsci

C. Jaques Derrida

D. Claude Levi Strauss

Ans. C

22. Who gave the term 'Deconstruction' ?

A. Fardinand De Saussure

B. Jaques Derrida

C. Antonio Gramsci

D. Claude Levi Strauss

Ans. B

23. Who coined the term 'Objective Correlative' first ?

A. Washington Allston

B. T. S. Eliot

C. John Keats

D. John Ruskin

Ans. A

24. Who gave the term 'Inter-texuality' ?

A. Gayatri Spivak

B. Julia Kristeva

C. Antonio Gramsci

D. Claude Levi Strauss

Ans. B

25. Who among the following coined the term 'Feminism' ?

A. Eline Showalter

B. Charles Fourier

C. Alice Walker

D. Verginia Woolf

Ans. B

26. Among the followings who coined the term 'Queer Theory' in 1991 ?

A. William Butler

B. Sedgwick

C. Michael Foucault

D. Teresa de Lauretic

Ans. D

27. Who coined the term 'Lost Generation' that refers to a group of American writers and artists who came of age during World War I ?

A. Earnest Hemingway

B. Gertrude Stein

C. Archibald MacLeish

D. Hart Crane

Ans. B

28. Who coined the term 'Metaphysical Poetry'?

A. George Herbert

B. John Donne

C. Dr. Samuel Johnson

D. Henry Marvel

Ans. C

29. Who coined the term 'Oedipus Complex'?

A. Sigmund Freud

B. Jaques Darida

C. Noam Chomsky

D. Ferdinand De Saussure

Ans. A

30. Who coined the term 'Affective Fallacy & Intentional Fallacy' ?

A. John Crow Ransom

B. T. S. Eliot

C. Wimsatt and Beardsley

D. Munroe Beardsley

Ans. C

31. Who coined the term 'Subaltern'?

A. Ranajit Guha

B. Antonio Gramsci

C. Gayatri Ch. Spivak

D. Sigmund Freud

Ans. C

32. Who coined the term 'Egotistical Sublime'?

A. T.S. Eliot

B. John Keats

C. Mathew Arnold

D. George Orwell

Ans. B

33. Who coined the term 'Satanic School' ?

A. John Milton

B. Robert Southy

C. Lord Byron

D. P. B. Shelley

Ans. B

34. Who coined the term 'Post - Modernism' ?

A. Verginia Woolf

B. Arnold Toynbee

C. John Watkins Chapman

D. Jean-François Lyotard

Ans. B

35. Who coined the term 'Womanism' ?

A. Eline Showalter

B. Charles Fourier

C. Alice Walker

D. Verginia Woolf

Ans. C

36. Who coined the term 'Ecriture Feminine' ?

A. Eline Showalter

B. Helene Cixious

C. Charles Fourier

D. Alice Walker

Ans. B (In The Laugh of Medusa)

37. The terms 'Competence and Performance' are coined by __.

A. Noam Chomsky

B. Sigmund Freud

C. Fardinand De Saussure

D. Mathew Arnold

Ans. A

38. Who coined the term 'Bricolage' ?

A. Antonio Gramsci

B. Claude Levi Strauss

C. Gayatri Ch. Spivak

D. Sigmund Freud

Ans. B

39. Who coined the term 'Binary Opposition' ?

A. Antonio Gramsci

B. Claude Levi Strauss

C. Jaques Derrida

D. Saussure

Ans. B

40. Who among the following coined the term 'Sweetness and Light'?

A. Mathew Arnold

B. Jonathan Swift

C. Irving Wardle

D. Samuel Johnson

Ans. B

👉 Jonathan Swift in The Battle of the Books and later by Mathew Arnold in Culture and Anarchy.

41. Who coined the term 'Defamiliarization'?

A. Jaques Derrida

B. Fardinand De Saussure

C. Viktor Shklovsky

D. T. S. Eliot

Ans. C

42. Who coined the term 'Blue Comedy' ?

A. Erwin Piscator

B. Irving Wardle

C. Lionel Abel

D. Max Miller

Ans. D

43. Who coined the term 'Meta Theatre' ?

A. Erwin Piscator

B. Irving Wardle

C. Lionel Abel

D. Max Miller

Ans. C

44. Who coined the term 'Epic Theatre' ?

A. Erwin Piscator

B. Irving Wardle

C. Lionel Abel

D. Max Miller

Ans. A

45. The term 'Imagism' was coined by __.

A. T. E. Hume

B. Ezra Pound

C. W. B. Yeats

D. T. S Eliot

Ans. B

46. Who coined the term 'Collective Unconsciousness' ?

A. Sigmund Freud

B. Carl Jung

C. John Keats

D. Noam Chomsky

ans. B

47. The Archetypal Approach is associated with whom one of the following?

A. Jean Baudrillard

B. Antonio Gramsci

C. Jaques Derrida

D. Northrop Frye

Ans. D

48. Who coined the term 'Kinesthetic'?

A. Jean Baudrillard

B. Antonio Gramsci

C. F. R. Leavis

D. William Empson

Ans. C

49. Who coined the term 'Scrutiny' ?

A. F.R. Leavis

B. William Epsom

C. John Crowe Ransome

D. I.A. Richards

Ans. A

50. Who coined the term New Criticism first ?

A. William Epsom

B. John Crowe Ransom

C. I.A. Richards:

D. J. E. Spingarn

Ans. B

51. Who coined the term 'The Heresy of Paraphrase' ?

A. F. R. Leavis

B. Cleanth Brooks

C. Jaques Derrida

D. William Empson

Ans. B

52. The term 'Ambiguity' is coined by ____.

A. F. R. Leavis

B. William Empson

C. Jaques Derrida

D. Cleanth Brooks

Ans. B

53. Dissociation of Sensibility and Unification of Sensibility :

A. T. S. Eliot

B. John Donne

C. Ezra Pound

D. D. H. Lawrence

Ans. A

54. The terms 'Logocentrism' & 'Phonocentrism' are coined by which of the followings?

A. Jean Baudrillard

B. Antonio Gramsci

C. Jaques Derrida

D. William Empson

Ans. D

55. Concept of Hegemony is given by __.

A. Jean Baudrillard

B. Antonio Gramsci

C. Jaques Derrida

D. William Empson

Ans. B

56. Who coined the term 'Simulacrum' ?

A. Antonio Gramsci

B. Jaques Derrida

C. William Empson

D. Jean Baudrillard

Ans. D

57. Who coined the term 'Chora' ?

A. Julia Kristeva

B. Jaques Derrida

C. William Empson

D. Jaques Derrida

Ans. A

58. Who coined the term 'Meta History' ?

A. Erwin Piscator

B. Irving Wardle

C. Lionel Abel

D. Hayden White

Ans. D

59. Who introduced the concept 'Strategic essentialism' ?

A. Julia Kristeva

B. Antonio Gramsci

C. Gayatri Ch. Spivak

D. Sigmund Freud

Ans. C

60. In which work Geoffrey Chaucer first used the term "rhyme royal" ?

A. Troilus and Criseyde

B. The Parlement of Foules

C. Canterbury Tales

D. Both A & B

Ans. D

MCQ ON CULTURAL STUDIES

Literary Terms in English Literature :

61. Gender Trouble by Judith Butler

62. Inscape and Instress : by - G. M. Hopkins

63. Science Fiction : by Forrest J. Ackerman

64. Hermeneutic Circle : by- Wilhelm Dilthey

65. Ecological Imperialism : by - Alfred Crosby

66. Horizon of Expectations by H R Jauss

67. Imagined Communities : by- Benedict Anderson

68. Habitus : By- Pierre Bourdieu

69. Flaneur : by- Walter Benjamin

70. American Renaissance : by - F. O. Matthiessen

71. Sensuous : by- John Milton

72. Medievalism : - John Ruskin

73. Interpretive Communities : - Stanley Fish

74. Hyper Text : by - Ted Nelson

75. Poetic Justice by -Thomas Rhymer

78. Bildingsroman by -Karl Morgenstern

79. Double think : by - George Orwell

80. Life Force by G B Shaw

81. Serendipity: by - Horace Walpole

82. New Historicism : by- Stephan Greenbalt

83. Negritude : - Aimee Cesaire and Leopald Senghor

84. Surrealist : by - Guillaume Apollinaire

85. Materialist Feminism : by - Monique Witting

86. Comic Inferno : by- Kingsley Amis

87. Epiphany : - James Joyce

88. Problem Plays : - Sydney Grundy

89. Gilded Age : - Mark Twain

90. Blank Verse in English poetry :

- Surrey (In his translation Aenied)

91. Beat Generation : by- Jack Kerouac

92. New Journalism : by- Matthew Arnold

93. Cultural Industry : - Theodore Adorno & Horkheimer

94. Communicative Competence : - Dell Hymes

95. Darwinism : by - Thomas Henry Huxley

96. School of Resentment : - Harold Bloom

97. Holocaust : by - Winston Churchill

98. Black Humour : - Andre Breton

99. Comedy of Menace : by- Irving Wardle

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Canadian Writings in English Literature MCQ

2024-02-19T20:30:00.003+05:30

MCQs ON CANADIAN LITERATURE

Multiple Choice Questions on Canadian Writers in English Literature |

Which among the following Canadian poet, novelist, literary critic was nominated five times for Booker Prize but got only once in 2000 ?

A. Margaret Laurence

B. Margaret Atwood

C. Alice Munro

D. Margaret Thatcher

Ans. B

Who is considered as the Father of Canadian Literature?

A. Margaret Atwood

B. Alice Munro

C. Margaret Laurence

D. Charles G. D. Roberts

Ans. D

Among the following which Canadian writer used the pseudonym 'Steve Lancaster' for publishing her poetry?

A. Margaret Laurence

B. Margaret Atwood

C. Alice Munro

D. Margaret Thatcher

Ans. A

The protagonist of the feminist work, 'The Edible Women' by Margaret Atwood is ___.

A. Marian

B. Gertrude

C. Ainsley

D. Duncan

Ans. A

Canadian literature in English MCQ

The three office virgins: Lucy, Emmy, and Millie appear in which work of Margaret Atwood?

A. The Blind Assassin

B. Surfacing

C. The Edible Women

D. The Handmaid Tale

Ans. C

Which among the following is a dystopian novel by the Canadian author, Margaret Atwood?

A. The Blind Assassin

B. Surfacing

C. The Edible Women

D. The Handmaid Tale

Ans. D

The title of the the dystopian novel, The Handmaid's Tale by the Canadian author Margaret Atwood has been taken from ___.

A. Chaucer's Canterbury Tale

B. Shakespeare's The Tempest

Ans. A

Who is the protagonist in the novel The Handmaid's Tale written by the Canadian novelist Margaret Atwood ?

A. Nick

B. Offred

C. Ofglen

D. Serena Joy

Ans. B

The Apprenticeship of Duddy Kravitz, which was published in 1959, is a novel by Canadian author ___.

A. Mordecai Richler

B. Alice Munro

C. Margaret Laurence

D. Charles G. D. Roberts

Ans. A

Rita and Cora are the characters of Canadian author Margaret Atwood. In which novel they appear ?

A. The Blind Assassin

B. Surfacing

C. The Edible Women

D. The Handmaid Tale

Ans. D

Which one among the following is a historical fiction by the Canadian writer Margaret Atwood?

A. The Blind Assassin

B. Alias Grace

C. The Edible Women

D. The Handmaid Tale

Ans. B

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Indian Writing in English | MCQ

2024-02-02T21:21:00.032+05:30

Indian Writing in English | Indian Literature MCQ

MCQ on Indian Writing in English: POETRY

MCQ on Indian Writing in English: SHORT STORY

MCQ on Indian Writing in English: DRAMA

MCQ on Indian Writing in English: PROSE

MCQ on Indian Writing in English: NOVEL

English in India MCQ | Indian English Literature MCQ

👉 Indian English Literature

Indian literature in English MCQ | literature Hub

MCQ on Indian Writings in English - Indian Authors :

Among the following who is considered as the 'First English writing women of India' ?

A. Sarojini Naidu

B. Jhumpa Lahiri

C. Anita Desai

D. Toru Dutt

Ans. D

Among the following which Indian writer published his collection of short stories under the title 'Tales from Firozshah Baag' ?

A. Vikram Seth

B. Salman Rushdie

C. Pritish Nandy

D. Rohinton Mistry

Ans. D

Who is the protagonist of the novel 'The Serpent and the Rope' written by Raja Rao ?

A. Moorthy

B. Achakka

C. Ramaswamy

D. Govinda Nair

Ans. C

In which of the following works the Indian playwright, Grish Karnad used Yakshagana, a dance-drama of South India, associated most strongly with the State of Karnataka?

A. Hayavadana

B. Yayati

C. Nagamandala

D. Tughlaq

Ans. A

Among the following plays by Grish Karnad which one is based on the folktales of Karnataka, India ?

A. Yayati

B. Tughlaq

C. Nagamandala

D. Hayavadana

Ans. C

Who among the following is the first Indian poet to receive Sahitya Akademi Award (1981) ?

A. A.K Ramanujan

B.Nissim Ezekiel

C. Khushwant Singh

D. Jayanti Mahapatra

Ans. D

Which Indian writer received Neustadt International Prize for Literature in 2012 ?

A. Grish Karnad

B. Salman Rushdie

C. Shashi Tharoor

D. Rohinton Mistry

Ans. D

Among the following who wrote the poem 'Our Casuarina Tree' ?

A. Romesh Chunder Dutt

B. Madhusudan Dutt

C. Toru Duty

D. Sarojini Naidu

Ans. C

Who wrote the poem 'The Lotus' ?

A. Romesh Chunder Dutt

B. Madhusudan Dutt

C. Sarojini Naidu

D. Toru Duty

Ans. D

'The Fakir of Jungheera' is a well-known Indian literary work written by whom in the following?

A. Sri Aurobindo Ghosh

B. H. Derozio

C. Sarojini Naidu

D. Toru Duty

Ans. B

" I am an Indian very brown, born in Malabar, I speak three languages, write in two and dream in one". Who is the speaker?

A. Arundhati Roy

B. Kiran Desai

C. Amitav Ghosh

D. Kamla Das

Ans. D

The great Indian philosophical epic 'Savitri' in 12 books, is written by____.

A. Sri Aurobindo Ghosh

B. H. Derozio

C. Sarojini Naidu

D. Toru Duty

Ans. A

Arun Joshi received Sahitya Academy Award for his novel __.

A. 'The Last Labyrinth

B. The Foreigner

C. The Strange Case of Belly Biswas

D. Shri Ram (biography co-authored with Khushwant Singh

Ans. A

The collection of poems 'The Golden Threshold' is written by ___.

A. Sri Aurobindo Ghosh

B. H. Derozio

C. Sarojini Naidu

D. Toru Duty

Ans. C

Among the following characters of R. K. Narayan, who is a true disciple of Mahatma Gandhi ?

A. Sita

B. Rosie

C. Daisy

D. Bharati

Ans. D

"While I feel about as an Indian, I think about it as an outsider." Who among the following Indian writers states it in his/her work?

Among the following works which one 'describes the degradation and corruption in the infamous red-light district of Bombay where a young girl was sold who ultimately died there.

A. The Hungry Ones by Asif Currimbhoy

B. A Touch of Brightness by Pratap Sharma

C. Mira by Gurcharan Das

D. Sleepwalkers by Nissim Ezekiel

Ans. B

"My man, my sons, forming the axis
while I, wife and mother
insignificant as a fly
climbed the glass panes of their eyes."

Identify the poem written by Kamala Das from which the above lines have been taken.

(a) 'The Latest Toy'

(b) 'The Old Playhouse'

(d) 'A Widow's Lament'

Ans. D

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Literary Criticism and Theory | English Literature MCQ |

Major Indian Writers in English Literature

Rabindra Nath Tagore
Henry Derozio
R.K Narayan
Mulk Raj Anand
Raja Rao | Toru Dutt
Ruskin Bond
Nissim Ezekiel
Micheal Madhusudan Dutt
Sri Aurobindo
Vikram Seth
Jhumpa Lahiri
Sarojini Naidu
Rohinton Mistry
Salman Rushdie
Khushwant Singh
Shobha De
Shashi Deshpande
Shashi Tharoor
Romesh Chander Dutt
A.K Ramanujan
R Parthsarthy
Arvind Adiga
Amitav Ghosh
Kamla Das
Arundhati Roy
Arun Kolatkar
Kamla Markandaya
Badal Sircar
Bhabani Bhattacharya
Jayant Mahapatra
Mahesh Dattani
Mahashweta Devi
Nirad C Chaudhury
Nayantara Sahgal
Manohar Malgaonkar
Arun Joshi
Ananda Coomaraswamy
Anita Desai
Kiran Desai
Girish Karnad
Vijay Tendulkar
Meena Alexander
Meena Kandaswami

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